sillygoose
Well-known member
Having read about US history with Latin America, no. Because the actual purpose was to ensure only the US dominated the western hemisphere. American imperialism started in 1812. Besides there is a reason why Latin American countries keep trying to break free of US domination only to suffer badly as a result.Did you ever consider that many protecting Latin America from European imperialism could have been in Latin America's own best interests? That was the original purpose of the Monroe Doctrine before TR added his Roosevelt Corollary to it in 1904.
Being part of the EU is not neutrality, as the EU has proven itself subservient to US demands.Would Russia have been content with an arrangement where this would have been done but where Ukraine would have been included in the EU? Because its 2013 actions certainly don't suggest so!