What would the effects have been had Western Europe relied on cheap labor from India in the post-WWII decades in place of cheap Muslim labor (as in, in place of cheap labor from the Muslim world)? To elaborate on what I mean here, take a look at this chart:
And the same chart, excluding Mexico:
Here, I am thinking of having the amount of uneducated Muslim immigration to Europe be much smaller while having the amount of uneducated Hindu immigration to Europe be much larger.
Anyway, what would the effects of this have been? Would uneducated Hindus have been, on average, more capable of successful assimilation in Europe in comparison to uneducated Muslims? How would uneducated Hindus have compared in terms of assimilation in Europe to the assimilation of uneducated Hispanics in the US, for instance?
Any thoughts on all of this?
And the same chart, excluding Mexico:
Here, I am thinking of having the amount of uneducated Muslim immigration to Europe be much smaller while having the amount of uneducated Hindu immigration to Europe be much larger.
Anyway, what would the effects of this have been? Would uneducated Hindus have been, on average, more capable of successful assimilation in Europe in comparison to uneducated Muslims? How would uneducated Hindus have compared in terms of assimilation in Europe to the assimilation of uneducated Hispanics in the US, for instance?
Any thoughts on all of this?