Use of Elohim in the Bible (and in Fantasy Versus!)

King Arts

Well-known member
Well, first--as I said, unless lesser powers get involved, there's nothing that can really go head to head with the US directly. Lesser powers are still...well, gods. Nor would Ao involve himself, for if he were, he could simply be rid of the Americans himself. He has total authority within Realmspace. If there were an authority that could overpower him, he's got bigger problems than the Americans.



Let's back up a step. First, deities in FR don't behave in the same ways as gods are imagined, fantasy or otherwise. In FR, the gods are primarily interested in their own domains. Obsessed. Gond, for example, doesn't really care what happens in regards to magic, so long as it doesn't interfere with his own portfolio. Mystra acts the same way towards technology; so long as it doesn't cross her own portfolio, she doesn't care. Their indifference begins and ends at the border of their portfolio.

Now, the world is very complicated, so gods like Gond and Mystra can find themselves opposed to each other and all other gods on some level, but they act more as nations do than as individuals. They'll escalate indirect attacks or engage in cold wars. Going all out and stripping a group or a god from your domain can be very serious. Midnight, for example, was threatened with censorship by the gods in her own pantheon if she didn't remove her own censorship on Cyric. And both of them, along with Kelemvor were ALL put on trial for failure to uphold their portfolios and interfering with others, by reason of humanity. (of some shade or another)

A military invasion by the US would not actually trigger a response by the gods. Not a direct one, at least. What would trigger a response is Christians moving into the region and trying to spread the faith of YHWH. Because that's an actual threat to the gods; the loss of worship through Christian conversion would drain the gods of their powers and force them to act in their own interests. Of course, that would mean the entire pantheon essentially trying to challenge a being as great (or greater) than Ao.
It depends divine powers usually don't intervene because of divine politics same reason we don't nuke Afghanistan it's a self imposed limitation. As for Yahweh bold of you to assume he would get involved, or that he is more powerful than the gods of D&D. If D&D gods exist Yahweh or a being like him can exist (aka the God of the Bible who led the Isralites out of bondage etc.) But all the extras people put on him of being the omnipotent creator and final judge would be wrong since well here are things Yahweh did not create and there are after lives he has no authority over. There can only be one absolute omnipotent creator deity, if Ao is it, then the Judeo/Christian/Islamic god is Ao but from what I know of D&D Ao does not like to be worshipped because he wants to give that to beings that actually need it the gods that he created or that ascended from his creations. Now a being called Yahweh who did the stuff in the Bible could exist and compete against D&D gods that aren't Ao however Yahweh is not omnipotent and has been beaten before and lost, and when I say lost I don't mean in the sense of it all going to plan. I mean it in the sense where he had his prophet in good standing give a prophecy to Israel while they were in good standing, and then when the prophecy was being done it was overturned.
 

The Original Sixth

Well-known member
Founder
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Imagine this happening to aircraft carriers.


...How?
First of all, that ship is made of wood. Something far, far weaker than the armor on a Super Carrier. Second, look at how close that guy had to GET in order to make his attack happen. No ship ever going to just stroll up to a Super Carrier. There are about a dozen ship acting as escort for a Super Carrier. Even if he managed to take down one of THEM, the response from the rest of the fleet would turn him into a bloody smear across the surface of the ocean.

As for the USA... the magic and technology of the fantasy setting will interest the USA military enough to try to acquire it for themselves. Numbers wise, they have enough soldiers that there is a decent chance that they will eventually be able to capture a sorcerer or an anime swordsman, and then interrogate or vivisect him trying to learn the magic. The megacorporate state will try to exploit the newly found world, hence the initial invasion. Probably turns into Vietnam but 100x worse. As the USA's military gets screwed up and the military realizes they have bigger fish to fry, the war will come to an end.

I think you need to learn the difference between a tactical threat and a strategic threat.

It depends divine powers usually don't intervene because of divine politics same reason we don't nuke Afghanistan it's a self imposed limitation.

No, they don't intervene because there is a conflict of interest among the pantheon. It's not that they all agree NOT to interfere, they agree to NOT interfere overtly because doing so would trigger a direct confrontation that could get most or all of them killed. And that ignores the outside threat of other FR pantheons moving in after a few of their own gods bite the dust.


As for Yahweh bold of you to assume he would get involved, or that he is more powerful than the gods of D&D.

It's not bold at all. YHWH has shown that not only is He more powerful than all the Elohim, but He is fully capable and willing to flood large population centers and even vaporize them, should He feel the need. The FR deities are completely limited in their ability to perform similar acts, because they risk damaging their own worshipers.

If D&D gods exist Yahweh or a being like him can exist (aka the God of the Bible who led the Isralites out of bondage etc.) But all the extras people put on him of being the omnipotent creator and final judge would be wrong since well here are things Yahweh did not create and there are after lives he has no authority over.

What extras? YHWH fully takes credit for the creation of the world, takes full authority over all the Elohim, and regularly defeats "rival" deities such as Baal Haddad or Lucifer (a Seraphim, I might add) without either effort or half the time, sends someone beneath Himself to deal with the threat. This is biblical and historical knowledge, it's not something some ignorant Sunday School teacher decided upon.

There can only be one absolute omnipotent creator deity, if Ao is it, then the Judeo/Christian/Islamic god is Ao but from what I know of D&D Ao does not like to be worshipped because he wants to give that to beings that actually need it the gods that he created or that ascended from his creations.

Lord Ao is not YHWH. Lord Ao serves a being greater than himself, a glowing entity of some sort. Nor is Lord Ao all seeing or all powerful, because he has been oblivious to certain events within Realmspace, even among the divine. He is rated as an Overdeity. These are not the same characteristics attributed to YHWH, nor does YHWH have a superior. If we were to be generous, they would be equals.

Now a being called Yahweh who did the stuff in the Bible could exist and compete against D&D gods that aren't Ao however Yahweh is not omnipotent and has been beaten before and lost, and when I say lost I don't mean in the sense of it all going to plan. I mean it in the sense where he had his prophet in good standing give a prophecy to Israel while they were in good standing, and then when the prophecy was being done it was overturned.

Name a time when YHWH lost a battle.
 

King Arts

Well-known member
It's not bold at all. YHWH has shown that not only is He more powerful than all the Elohim, but He is fully capable and willing to flood large population centers and even vaporize them, should He feel the need. The FR deities are completely limited in their ability to perform similar acts, because they risk damaging their own worshipers.
Yahweh claims he was the one who flooded the world, but many other deities also take credit for being the ones who commited the world wide flood. After all the flooding of the world is a well known story and while the Bible claims Yahweh did it, the Greeks though Zeus, the other religions say another god did it. As for vaporizing Sodom and Gomorrah not that impressive that's basic Godly smitting, there are few gods that would be incapable of destroying a city.

What extras? YHWH fully takes credit for the creation of the world, takes full authority over all the Elohim, and regularly defeats "rival" deities such as Baal Haddad or Lucifer (a Seraphim, I might add) without either effort or half the time, sends someone beneath Himself to deal with the threat. This is biblical and historical knowledge, it's not something some ignorant Sunday School teacher decided upon.
The extras of omnipotence, and omniscience since God does not act like he is all knowing considering he asks questions, and is surprised. It's also a cope to say these are rhetorical questions. As for him taking on rival deities like Baal yes, Yahweh beats rival deities most of the time but that just means he is powerful not ALL powerful considering what happened in 2nd kings.

Lord Ao is not YHWH. Lord Ao serves a being greater than himself, a glowing entity of some sort. Nor is Lord Ao all seeing or all powerful, because he has been oblivious to certain events within Realmspace, even among the divine. He is rated as an Overdeity. These are not the same characteristics attributed to YHWH, nor does YHWH have a superior. If we were to be generous, they would be equals.
The only reason Yahweh in this scenario could claim to be an equal of Ao and not his subordinate is because unlike other D&D gods he does not need worship to actually live, so that would make him like Ao.

Name a time when YHWH lost a battle.
Ok 2nd Kings Chemosh.
 

The Original Sixth

Well-known member
Founder
Yahweh claims he was the one who flooded the world, but many other deities also take credit for being the ones who commited the world wide flood. After all the flooding of the world is a well known story and while the Bible claims Yahweh did it, the Greeks though Zeus, the other religions say another god did it.

You're not understanding what I'm saying. I am well aware that plenty of gods can call upon floods. Certainly FR deities can do this as well. The problem they have is this produces a certain amount of risk, because they would need to kill their worshipers and the worshipers of others. So they would only do so if they needed to make an example of someone. Otherwise, you have the Lathander-Amaunator conflict, in which neither deity (or indeed, the same one) went on to punish their worshipers for heresy, but instead left it to their followers to sort out.

The point is that YHWH has a free hand to do as he pleases, where the FR deities are limited by their internal politics and their own reliance upon worship.


As for vaporizing Sodom and Gomorrah not that impressive that's basic Godly smitting, there are few gods that would be incapable of destroying a city.

To which FR deities rarely (if ever) go to such lengths. They cannot act as such without risking conflict with someone else or because they would lose personal power. An example would be Cyric; the loss of worship and adoration from his capital city weakened him (a greater power, I might add) to the point that he was getting has ass beaten by a mere mortal.

The extras of omnipotence, and omniscience since God does not act like he is all knowing considering he asks questions, and is surprised. It's also a cope to say these are rhetorical questions.

They are deemed to have been rhetoric. Or do you think Jewish and Christian priests would agree that YHWH is not omnipotent and omniscience?

As for him taking on rival deities like Baal yes, Yahweh beats rival deities most of the time but that just means he is powerful not ALL powerful considering what happened in 2nd kings.

YHWH wasn't just more powerful. There's a lot of symbolism in what happened. YHWH not only proved himself more powerful by being able to produce a greater effect than Baal Haddad, but he also prevented Baal Haddad from showing his power.

The only reason Yahweh in this scenario could claim to be an equal of Ao and not his subordinate is because unlike other D&D gods he does not need worship to actually live, so that would make him like Ao.

No, that would make him like most D&D deities, such as those in Krynnspace, who do not need worshipers, but are merely obsessed with them, because they hold parental affection of some sort or another. No, what sets YHWH apart from the most common deity is his supreme power over the Elohim. That he alone has the right to rule over the world and it was he who divided the world to the Elohim and later he had the authority and power to take it away.

Ok 2nd Kings Chemosh.


Well, where to start?

Let's take a look at the meat and potatoes, not his constant jabs at Christians. Your buddy here doesn't understand the context from which he draws his conclusions. Let's look at the so called "damning" passage of YHWH being defeated.

26 When the king of Moab saw that the battle had gone against him, he took with him seven hundred swordsmen to break through to the king of Edom, but they failed. 27 Then he took his firstborn son, who was to succeed him as king, and offered him as a sacrifice on the city wall. The fury against Israel was great; they withdrew and returned to their own land.

Now, from a strict reading here, it appears as if the King of Moab saw he was losing and made a sacrifice to Chemosh for victory. However, the word "fury" is actually slightly mistranslated and that has contributed to the misunderstanding of the Youtube "scholar" here. Here is a more accurate translation:

26And when the king of Moab saw that the battle was too fierce for him, he took with him seven hundred men who drew swords, to break through to the king of Edom, but they could not. 27Then he took his eldest son who would have reigned in his place, and offered him as a burnt offering upon the wall; and there was great indignation against Israel. So they departed from him and returned to their own land.

The key difference is one of "fury" and "indignation". Why does that matter? We'll let the context of the story speak for itself.


If you read the story, you know that Israel did not attack Moab on his own. Instead, he had gathered a coalition of nations. It was the King of Israel, as well as his two allies, the King of Judah and the King of Edom. You can see it here in this pasasge:

So King Jehoram went out of Samaria at that time and mustered all Israel. 7Then he went and sent to Jehoshaphat king of Judah, saying, “The king of Moab has rebelled against me. Will you go with me to fight against Moab?”
And he said, “I will go up; I am as you are, my people as your people, my horses as your horses.” 8Then he said, “Which way shall we go up?”
And he answered, “By way of the Wilderness of Edom.”
9So the king of Israel went with the king of Judah and the king of Edom, and they marched on that roundabout route seven days; and there was no water for the army, nor for the animals that followed them. 10And the king of Israel said, “Alas! For the Lord has called these three kings together to deliver them into the hand of Moab.”

800px-Kingdoms_of_the_Levant_Map_830.png


As you can see, the Kingdom of Moab borders Israel and Edom. Going by what we see here, the King of Israel decided to take the southern path, through the wilds of Edom, rather than go through his own border to Moab. Which was an interesting decision, my guess is to outguess his enemy, because that's a rather long supply chain.

So now that we have the matter of who was at the final scene, let us look at what had happened before this came about.

24So when they came to the camp of Israel, Israel rose up and attacked the Moabites, so that they fled before them; and they entered their land, killing the Moabites. 25Then they destroyed the cities, and each man threw a stone on every good piece of land and filled it; and they stopped up all the springs of water and cut down all the good trees. But they left the stones of Kir Haraseth intact. However the slingers surrounded and attacked it.

Israel, Judah, and Edom defeated the Moabites. They (though possibly only the Israelites) then proceed to burn and pillage the land. Entire cities, rivers, and fields are spoiled. It is at the capital city of Moab where the final battle takes place and it is seen that even there, the Moabites cannot defeat the gathered power of the nations against it. There is where the final scene occurs.

6And when the king of Moab saw that the battle was too fierce for him, he took with him seven hundred men who drew swords, to break through to the king of Edom, but they could not. 27Then he took his eldest son who would have reigned in his place, and offered him as a burnt offering upon the wall; and there was great indignation against Israel. So they departed from him and returned to their own land.

Notice that the King of Moab had tried to break through the King of Edom (not the Israelites). The King of Moab was then so desperate, that he offered his son to Chemosh. The King of Edom and his people became disgusted at how far things had gone. And so they blamed Israel. There was a "great indignation" or "fury" or "anger". And so they, either being the people of Edom, but also possibly Judah and Israel departed.

And this was hinted at by the narrative of the story, when we look to the prophet that they had consulted.

11But Jehoshaphat said, “Is there no prophet of the Lord here, that we may inquire of the Lord by him?”
So one of the servants of the king of Israel answered and said, “Elisha the son of Shaphat is here, who poured water on the hands of Elijah.”
12And Jehoshaphat said, “The word of the Lord is with him.” So the king of Israel and Jehoshaphat and the king of Edom went down to him.
13Then Elisha said to the king of Israel, “What have I to do with you? Go to the prophets of your father and the prophets of your mother.”
But the king of Israel said to him, “No, for the Lord has called these three kings together to deliver them into the hand of Moab.”
14And Elisha said, “As the Lord of hosts lives, before whom I stand, surely were it not that I regard the presence of Jehoshaphat king of Judah, I would not look at you, nor see you. 15But now bring me a musician.”

Elisha did not like the King of Israel. The impudence he displayed in basically telling the King of Israel to fuck off (even if it is politely) is reinforced when he tells the King of Israel that were it not for the King of Judah, he would not even look at him. He then gives the prophecy of Israel's victory. Chemosh did not defeat YHWH nor the allied powers that fell upon the capital of Moab.

Rather, it was the people of Edom (and possibly Judah) that had become angry with the Israelites for how far things had gone. Because as these people are all royalty who lead these armies, to have someone you've known all your life, sacrifice his son because of how far someone else had pushed him, would probably leave a bad taste in your mouth.

Nor would I trust a Youtube scholar who doesn't understand the rationality of the Trinity (not agree, but understand). Who is oblivious that most pagan deities never claim omnipotent power (or rarely do--the few times they do, it is often boasts, the divine equivalent of shit talking). He is too obtuse to realize that the power associated with YHWH is indeed supported by biblical sources. And he clearly doesn't do any sort of deep research, because he took one quote from the Bible and RAN WITH IT.

Maybe he shouldn't have just read one wikipedia article and assumed it to be the correct interpretation.

EDIT

In case it isn't clear, but the King of Israel, Jehoram, son of Ahab--was the asshole of the story. This is part of a greater narrative focusing on Elijah and Elisha. And as you might expect of every giant fucking prick in the Bible, Jehoram meets a nasty end.
 
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King Arts

Well-known member
You're not understanding what I'm saying. I am well aware that plenty of gods can call upon floods. Certainly FR deities can do this as well. The problem they have is this produces a certain amount of risk, because they would need to kill their worshipers and the worshipers of others. So they would only do so if they needed to make an example of someone. Otherwise, you have the Lathander-Amaunator conflict, in which neither deity (or indeed, the same one) went on to punish their worshipers for heresy, but instead left it to their followers to sort out.

The point is that YHWH has a free hand to do as he pleases, where the FR deities are limited by their internal politics and their own reliance upon worship.
Well the D&D gods wouldn't be smiting their own people they'd be smiting Yahweh's people maybe. if they are actually a threat and able to take their worshippers away. Depends, it probably wouldn't rise to that level since I don't think the people who worship the D&D gods will convert since their gods actually are more useful and willing to help than Yahweh is.

o which FR deities rarely (if ever) go to such lengths. They cannot act as such without risking conflict with someone else or because they would lose personal power. An example would be Cyric; the loss of worship and adoration from his capital city weakened him (a greater power, I might add) to the point that he was getting has ass beaten by a mere mortal.
Yes, but this is in response to your thing about Christians converting people. If it was actually a threat then the god's would get involved because either Yahweh is powerful enough to require an alliance, or he isn't all that and is just another god competing with others.

They are deemed to have been rhetoric. Or do you think Jewish and Christian priests would agree that YHWH is not omnipotent and omniscience?
Saying it's deemed to be rhetoric is cope. And it does not matter what Jews, or Christians argue, the Greek priests who worshipped Zeus considered him all powerful and all knowing.

YHWH wasn't just more powerful. There's a lot of symbolism in what happened. YHWH not only proved himself more powerful by being able to produce a greater effect than Baal Haddad, but he also prevented Baal Haddad from showing his power.
Yes Yahweh wins most of the conflicts in his book it makes him look good, that does not mean that it is perfectly accurate. I mean a book written by Stalin about ww2 could still be generally correct while still being very slanted towards him and the Soviet Union. Just like the Bible is historically accurate for the most part, but it is still biased towards Yahweh and the loyal angels of heaven.

No, that would make him like most D&D deities, such as those in Krynnspace, who do not need worshipers, but are merely obsessed with them, because they hold parental affection of some sort or another. No, what sets YHWH apart from the most common deity is his supreme power over the Elohim. That he alone has the right to rule over the world and it was he who divided the world to the Elohim and later he had the authority and power to take it away.
But, if D&D exists Yahweh does not hold supreme power over the gods, he does not have control over the after life except for his worshippers, and he did not create all of creation. Either D&D is real, or you are making a new fantasy setting that is D&D in name only.

Well, where to start?

Let's take a look at the meat and potatoes, not his constant jabs at Christians. Your buddy here doesn't understand the context from which he draws his conclusions. Let's look at the so called "damning" passage of YHWH being defeated.
He's not my buddy. Also banging on and on about context is cope.


Now, from a strict reading here, it appears as if the King of Moab saw he was losing and made a sacrifice to Chemosh for victory. However, the word "fury" is actually slightly mistranslated and that has contributed to the misunderstanding of the Youtube "scholar" here. Here is a more accurate translation:
Fury, anger, pissed off whatever, negative feelings. King of Moab made a sacrifice of his son to Chemosh(according to Bible) and something was angry at the Isralites and their allies. It's highly implied that it was the demon/god Chemosh. It doesen't spell it out, but basic common sense and reading it objectively without a predetermined end goal leads to it being Chemosh that was angry at the Isralites and came upon them.

The key difference is one of "fury" and "indignation". Why does that matter? We'll let the context of the story speak for itself.

https://www.bible.com/bible/114/2KI.3.NKJV
If you read the story, you know that Israel did not attack Moab on his own. Instead, he had gathered a coalition of nations. It was the King of Israel, as well as his two allies, the King of Judah and the King of Edom. You can see it here in this pasasge:
Yes, Israel and it's ally Judah, and puppet Edom together attacked Moab.

As you can see, the Kingdom of Moab borders Israel and Edom. Going by what we see here, the King of Israel decided to take the southern path, through the wilds of Edom, rather than go through his own border to Moab. Which was an interesting decision, my guess is to outguess his enemy, because that's a rather long supply chain.

So now that we have the matter of who was at the final scene, let us look at what had happened before this came about.
Yes going through the long way is strange, and your hypothesis could be right, but it's also possible that king of Israel wanted to bring a large army to bear, but did not want to use his own supplies so going through and using Edom's provisions before going into Moab and looting it. Living off the land itself can be effective for pre modern armies.

Israel, Judah, and Edom defeated the Moabites. They (though possibly only the Israelites) then proceed to burn and pillage the land. Entire cities, rivers, and fields are spoiled. It is at the capital city of Moab where the final battle takes place and it is seen that even there, the Moabites cannot defeat the gathered power of the nations against it. There is where the final scene occurs.
Yes, Israel is winning and at the last second they snatch defeat from the Jaws of victory.

Notice that the King of Moab had tried to break through the King of Edom (not the Israelites). The King of Moab was then so desperate, that he offered his son to Chemosh. The King of Edom and his people became disgusted at how far things had gone. And so they blamed Israel. There was a "great indignation" or "fury" or "anger". And so they, either being the people of Edom, but also possibly Judah and Israel departed.

And this was hinted at by the narrative of the story, when we look to the prophet that they had consulted.
Now this is cope. Nowhere in previous wars that the Bible talks about, or in future premodern wars, were people shy about putting their enemy to the sword and enslaving the women and children. Israel and Judah were allies who were punishing a rebellious vassal, a vassal who also does not worship Yahweh. Yahweh himself usually advocated complete genocide on Caanaties and adjacent tribes. Not just kill all the men and loot the place no. He ordered everything to be destroyed even stuff that could have been useful like oxen, sheep, goats, other livestock. In some places he ordered Nazi like complete extermination. When he did not order complete extermination he was ok with enslavement and such.


Elisha did not like the King of Israel. The impudence he displayed in basically telling the King of Israel to fuck off (even if it is politely) is reinforced when he tells the King of Israel that were it not for the King of Judah, he would not even look at him. He then gives the prophecy of Israel's victory. Chemosh did not defeat YHWH nor the allied powers that fell upon the capital of Moab.

Rather, it was the people of Edom (and possibly Judah) that had become angry with the Israelites for how far things had gone. Because as these people are all royalty who lead these armies, to have someone you've known all your life, sacrifice his son because of how far someone else had pushed him, would probably leave a bad taste in your mouth.
Yes, Elisha did not like the King of Israel, but he consented to help because of Judah's king. Still he gave a prophecy that water would come it did, and victory would come. It almost did but the victory was never achieved. Thus the prophecy was false.

Nor would I trust a Youtube scholar who doesn't understand the rationality of the Trinity (not agree, but understand). Who is oblivious that most pagan deities never claim omnipotent power (or rarely do--the few times they do, it is often boasts, the divine equivalent of shit talking). He is too obtuse to realize that the power associated with YHWH is indeed supported by biblical sources. And he clearly doesn't do any sort of deep research, because he took one quote from the Bible and RAN WITH IT.

Maybe he shouldn't have just read one wikipedia article and assumed it to be the correct interpretation.
Ok, now I know you are bullshitting. There is no rationality to the trinity. It literally can't be explained. If you can't explain something you don't understand it. Anyone who says they understand it and then tries to explain is probably doing a heresy. No the trinity is a divine mystery we don't understand it but we believe it. That's how Christians will "explain" the trinity.

Also yes there are pagan dieties that are omnipotent Bhrama, Zeus according to some. As for it being shit talking the same argument applies to claims of Yahweh's omnipotence.
 

The Original Sixth

Well-known member
Founder
Well the D&D gods wouldn't be smiting their own people they'd be smiting Yahweh's people maybe. if they are actually a threat and able to take their worshippers away.

It doesn't work that way. A god will generally only smite people who have personally offended them. And they have to do so in such a way that is impertinent to the divine being. Deities literally deem it beneath their honor to just smite a mortal because they foiled them. They might send mortal agents after you, but overt divine retribution is simply something they don't do. Otherwise no one would bother to foil Bane, because he'd just smite your ass afterwards. Even deities that are anti-social or psychotic follow this behavior.

What you will find more common is religious wars. And while wizards and priests are great...I'm not sure they'd do so well against a Christian Crusade armed with modern-day weapons.

Depends, it probably wouldn't rise to that level since I don't think the people who worship the D&D gods will convert since their gods actually are more useful and willing to help than Yahweh is.

Yes and no.

The people who benefit most from D&D gods are not actually the masses. It is the people who are in power. Either because they are paladins, priests, or chosen--or because they can afford their services. The vast majority of the population cannot afford the powers of a priest. And the only priestly powers that are generally handed out by temples come from those who are of the lowest level and perform only the smallest of miracles. Nor do the higher ranked priests generally care too much about those beneath them, they are generally dealing with the elites of society of their preferred social circle.

In fact, the masses actually get very little. They can get free food and water from temples, but only if they go to the service. During a time of emergency in Selgaunt, the High Hulorn had to basically blackmail the local temples into going out and providing food to the people in the city. Literally threatened to take away their land deeds for their temple just to get them to actually help all the starving people in the streets. And the temple priests were outraged that they'd been forced to help them.

Christian servants, on the other hand, do not have on demand access to divine power. But what they do have is access to a massive source of food (US, world's greatest agricultural power in the world, bar none), the world's greatest supply chain (greater Mississippi River system), superior forms of preservation (ie, canned goods), and medical resources. And not only can they outproduce the limited spellcasting abilities of a D&D priest, but they are more willing to help others in times of trouble.

Yes, but this is in response to your thing about Christians converting people. If it was actually a threat then the god's would get involved because either Yahweh is powerful enough to require an alliance, or he isn't all that and is just another god competing with others.

I don't think you understand. The Elohim are not the most powerful of YHWH's servants. Nor does he need an army or an alliance to defeat them. He literally strips them of their divine right to rule.

Psalms 82:1
Psalm 82[a]
The Downfall of Unjust Gods

1 A psalm of Asaph.

I
God takes a stand in the divine council,
gives judgment in the midst of the gods.
2 “How long will you judge unjustly
and favor the cause of the wicked?
Selah
3 “Defend the lowly and fatherless;
render justice to the afflicted and needy.
4 Rescue the lowly and poor;
deliver them from the hand of the wicked.”
II
5 [b]The gods neither know nor understand,
wandering about in darkness,
and all the world’s foundations shake.
6 I declare: “Gods though you be,[c]
offspring of the Most High all of you,
7 Yet like any mortal you shall die;
like any prince you shall fall.”
8 Arise, O God, judge the earth,[d]
for yours are all the nations

In fact, I suspect that it is this scene that inspired the scene in FR where Lord Ao strips the FR pantheon of their godhood, thereby leading to the Times of Troubles. In fact, it even recalls the Tablets of Destiny, which is also from this region and were said to be held by El Elyon.


Saying it's deemed to be rhetoric is cope.

Hebrews 4:13
And before him no creature is hidden, but all are naked and laid bare to the eyes of the one to whom we must render an account.

And it does not matter what Jews, or Christians argue, the Greek priests who worshipped Zeus considered him all powerful and all knowing.

Do you actually have proof of that? Nor do I think it can be argued that El Elyon holds an inferior position to Zeus--or as the Hebrews called him, Ba'al Hadad. Last I checked, Baal's cults more or less lay dead and forgotten, where as El Elyon has the worship of 2.9 billion Christians and 1.9 billion Muslims--approximately half the world's population.

Yes Yahweh wins most of the conflicts in his book it makes him look good, that does not mean that it is perfectly accurate. I mean a book written by Stalin about ww2 could still be generally correct while still being very slanted towards him and the Soviet Union. Just like the Bible is historically accurate for the most part, but it is still biased towards Yahweh and the loyal angels of heaven.

YHWH being the most supreme actually dates back to Sumerian beliefs. As YHWH or El Elyon, is strongly associated with Anu and has many of his attributed powers and position.

But, if D&D exists Yahweh does not hold supreme power over the gods, he does not have control over the after life except for his worshippers, and he did not create all of creation. Either D&D is real, or you are making a new fantasy setting that is D&D in name only.

No, because Lord Ao is not the only Overpower, nor is Lord Ao the most powerful being. He is deemed (at least in one source) to have a superior. In fact, Lord Ao is clearly inspired by YHWH, even recreating the scene from Psalms, where he strips the FR pantheon of their godlike status, just as El Elyon had done to the Elohim.

He's not my buddy. Also banging on and on about context is cope.

If you're going to assert that the prophecy was broken, do you not think that you should be able to prove that it was indeed, broken?

Fury, anger, pissed off whatever, negative feelings. King of Moab made a sacrifice of his son to Chemosh(according to Bible) and something was angry at the Isralites and their allies. It's highly implied that it was the demon/god Chemosh. It doesen't spell it out, but basic common sense and reading it objectively without a predetermined end goal leads to it being Chemosh that was angry at the Isralites and came upon them.

Again, Chemosh has no power over El Elyon. As was proven when he stripped all the gods in Psalms of their power and diminished them to the status of mortals. The wrath was NOT of Chemosh's power (and indeed, there is no display of such power or of the Israelis fleeing in terror), but of Edom and Judah, who had grown angry over what Israel had done.

Yes going through the long way is strange, and your hypothesis could be right, but it's also possible that king of Israel wanted to bring a large army to bear, but did not want to use his own supplies so going through and using Edom's provisions before going into Moab and looting it. Living off the land itself can be effective for pre modern armies.

You are, mistaken. If you look at the map, there is an obvious border between Israel and Moab. And it is through that border that the most obvious blow would come from Israel. It was well linked into their supply lines and offered the quickest way. And that is also where Moab would station all of its own strength, in order to check Israel. So the Israeli king, thinking himself clever, decides he will instead march south and attack from Edom, taking Moab unaware from the south. In order to keep his attack secret, he wants to move through the wilderness, as word of the oncoming army will spread before the army can actually reach Moab. Because any spy for Moab would be able to send word ahead of the army.

The risk to this plan however, is twofold. First, ancient armies need supply chains. They are not immune to it. In fact, they were very reliant upon it and taking your army without a supply chain means that your army will run out of food in about 2-4 days, depending on the gear each soldier carries and so forth. In addition, moving through the wild is difficult, because you need to retain some sort of formation and that is not easy across even flat terrain and it is damn hard with hills, mountains, and valleys.

And the predictable happens; the King of Israel and his army are soon without food and water, in the middle of the wilderness. So he goes to Elisha to bail him out of the mess he had made for himself.

Yes, Israel is winning and at the last second they snatch defeat from the Jaws of victory.

There is no mention of Israel losing the war. In fact, there is only direct evidence that the Edomites had left the field in disgust.

Now this is cope. Nowhere in previous wars that the Bible talks about, or in future premodern wars, were people shy about putting their enemy to the sword and enslaving the women and children. Israel and Judah were allies who were punishing a rebellious vassal, a vassal who also does not worship Yahweh. Yahweh himself usually advocated complete genocide on Caanaties and adjacent tribes. Not just kill all the men and loot the place no. He ordered everything to be destroyed even stuff that could have been useful like oxen, sheep, goats, other livestock. In some places he ordered Nazi like complete extermination. When he did not order complete extermination he was ok with enslavement and such.

No, the only person coping here is you. I'm sorry your retarded youtube "scholar" didn't read the full story. I'm sorry he misunderstood the translation. I'm sorry he's a bitter little faggot who likes to take potshots at Christians. And I'm sorry you're so attached to trying to get a "gotcha", that you keep screaming "COPE! COPE!" whenever we disagree upon something. You aren't going to win this argument. El Elyon's power and dominion over other gods is complete; it was pretty straight forward in Psalms, which I have provided you, and was also done so with Deuteronomy.

Deuteronomy 32:8-9
When the Most High[b] apportioned the nations,
when he divided humankind,
he fixed the boundaries of the peoples
according to the number of the gods;[c]
9 the Lord’s own portion was his people,
Jacob his allotted share.


Yes, Elisha did not like the King of Israel, but he consented to help because of Judah's king. Still he gave a prophecy that water would come it did, and victory would come. It almost did but the victory was never achieved. Thus the prophecy was false.

And yet this is not mentioned within the story. (at all) There is no divine manifestation that is revealed, only that someone is angry. You argue that it may be Chemosh. Okay, that's one out of three people who might be angry. The people of Judah and Edom could also be angry. And seeing as Chemosh has no power over the people of Israel, as they were not allotted to them by El Elyon, nor was it stated in the passage that El Elyon had allowed Chemosh to do so, and it is not even definitive WHO left, your argument is at best shaky and at worst, a complete flop.

EDIT

Oh right, you're also probably also thinking of the Moab king's boast of his victory over the Son of Omri, King of Israel. Wherein it boasts the defeat of Israel at the hands of the King of Moab. I think here, the Youtube author is conflating two different incidents. The Son of Omri was not Jehoram, who is the King of Israel in 2 Kings. Omri's son was Ahab, who is in fact, the father of Jehoram. Jehoram did not take the throne after Omri passed, that passed to Ahab, then to Jehoram's older brother Ahaziah, and then it passed to Jehoram.

King Ahab's reign was between 871-852 BC.
King Ahaziah's reign was somewhere in the early 850s, for about a year.
King Jehoram's reign was 850-840 BC.

So the war that you're referring to, where the King of Moab was victorious was between 20-30 years BEFORE the conflict that happened under King Jehoram. What this suggests to me was that, King Omri had demanded tribute from Moab. Sometime after King Omri died, the King of Moab sought to rebel under King Ahab. Sometime later, probably about ~20 years later, the King of Moab rebelled under King Jehoram.

If I were a betting man, the King(s) of Moab rebelled whenever there was a change of power, possibly viewing the new king as weak. So the first rebellion would have been in 871 BC and the second in 850 BC, respectively.


Ok, now I know you are bullshitting. There is no rationality to the trinity. It literally can't be explained. If you can't explain something you don't understand it. Anyone who says they understand it and then tries to explain is probably doing a heresy. No the trinity is a divine mystery we don't understand it but we believe it. That's how Christians will "explain" the trinity.

What exactly do you find perplexing about the trinity? It's a triple deity.

Also yes there are pagan dieties that are omnipotent Bhrama,

Bhrama, the triple deity (that is so perplexing to you) who is the all powerful Creator?

Zeus according to some.

To who? Please provide proof that Zeus was deemed almighty and powerful, considering he was never portrayed that way. Nor when religious syncretism took place between Greeks, Romans, and Canaanites, did they select El Elyon as the equal to Zeus or Jupiter--nor would they have, because they are not the same. Instead, they equated him to Baal Hadad. By their own admission, the Greeks and Romans equated their patron gods to a subordinate of El Elyon.

Granted, they had a different interpretation, likely that following the Marduk/Baal stories outside the bible, but the fact remains that Zeus and Jupiter are attributed as storm gods in the same way as Baal Hadad, not as El Elyon or Enlil or YHWH.

As for it being shit talking the same argument applies to claims of Yahweh's omnipotence.

...It literally does not. See Psalms and Deuteronomy. Literal stories of how El Elyon stripped the Elohim of both their positions and immortality for not upholding their duties.
 
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Bear Ribs

Well-known member
It doesn't work that way. A god will generally only smite people who have personally offended them. And they have to do so in such a way that is impertinent to the divine being. Deities literally deem it beneath their honor to just smite a mortal because they foiled them. They might send mortal agents after you, but overt divine retribution is simply something they don't do. Otherwise no one would bother to foil Bane, because he'd just smite your ass afterwards. Even deities that are anti-social or psychotic follow this behavior.

What you will find more common is religious wars. And while wizards and priests are great...I'm not sure they'd do so well against a Christian Crusade armed with modern-day weapons.



Yes and no.

The people who benefit most from D&D gods are not actually the masses. It is the people who are in power. Either because they are paladins, priests, or chosen--or because they can afford their services. The vast majority of the population cannot afford the powers of a priest. And the only priestly powers that are generally handed out by temples come from those who are of the lowest level and perform only the smallest of miracles. Nor do the higher ranked priests generally care too much about those beneath them, they are generally dealing with the elites of society of their preferred social circle.

In fact, the masses actually get very little. They can get free food and water from temples, but only if they go to the service. During a time of emergency in Selgaunt, the High Hulorn had to basically blackmail the local temples into going out and providing food to the people in the city. Literally threatened to take away their land deeds for their temple just to get them to actually help all the starving people in the streets. And the temple priests were outraged that they'd been forced to help them.

Christian servants, on the other hand, do not have on demand access to divine power. But what they do have is access to a massive source of food (US, world's greatest agricultural power in the world, bar none), the world's greatest supply chain (greater Mississippi River system), superior forms of preservation (ie, canned goods), and medical resources. And not only can they outproduce the limited spellcasting abilities of a D&D priest, but they are more willing to help others in times of trouble.



I don't think you understand. The Elohim are not the most powerful of YHWH's servants. Nor does he need an army or an alliance to defeat them. He literally strips them of their divine right to rule.

Psalms 82:1


In fact, I suspect that it is this scene that inspired the scene in FR where Lord Ao strips the FR pantheon of their godhood, thereby leading to the Times of Troubles. In fact, it even recalls the Tablets of Destiny, which is also from this region and were said to be held by El Elyon.




Hebrews 4:13




Do you actually have proof of that? Nor do I think it can be argued that El Elyon holds an inferior position to Zeus--or as the Hebrews called him, Ba'al Hadad. Last I checked, Baal's cults more or less lay dead and forgotten, where as El Elyon has the worship of 2.9 billion Christians and 1.9 billion Muslims--approximately half the world's population.



YHWH being the most supreme actually dates back to Sumerian beliefs. As YHWH or El Elyon, is strongly associated with Anu and has many of his attributed powers and position.



No, because Lord Ao is not the only Overpower, nor is Lord Ao the most powerful being. He is deemed (at least in one source) to have a superior. In fact, Lord Ao is clearly inspired by YHWH, even recreating the scene from Psalms, where he strips the FR pantheon of their godlike status, just as El Elyon had done to the Elohim.



If you're going to assert that the prophecy was broken, do you not think that you should be able to prove that it was indeed, broken?



Again, Chemosh has no power over El Elyon. As was proven when he stripped all the gods in Psalms of their power and diminished them to the status of mortals. The wrath was NOT of Chemosh's power (and indeed, there is no display of such power or of the Israelis fleeing in terror), but of Edom and Judah, who had grown angry over what Israel had done.



You are, mistaken. If you look at the map, there is an obvious border between Israel and Moab. And it is through that border that the most obvious blow would come from Israel. It was well linked into their supply lines and offered the quickest way. And that is also where Moab would station all of its own strength, in order to check Israel. So the Israeli king, thinking himself clever, decides he will instead march south and attack from Edom, taking Moab unaware from the south. In order to keep his attack secret, he wants to move through the wilderness, as word of the oncoming army will spread before the army can actually reach Moab. Because any spy for Moab would be able to send word ahead of the army.

The risk to this plan however, is twofold. First, ancient armies need supply chains. They are not immune to it. In fact, they were very reliant upon it and taking your army without a supply chain means that your army will run out of food in about 2-4 days, depending on the gear each soldier carries and so forth. In addition, moving through the wild is difficult, because you need to retain some sort of formation and that is not easy across even flat terrain and it is damn hard with hills, mountains, and valleys.

And the predictable happens; the King of Israel and his army are soon without food and water, in the middle of the wilderness. So he goes to Elisha to bail him out of the mess he had made for himself.



There is no mention of Israel losing the war. In fact, there is only direct evidence that the Edomites had left the field in disgust.



No, the only person coping here is you. I'm sorry your retarded youtube "scholar" didn't read the full story. I'm sorry he misunderstood the translation. I'm sorry he's a bitter little faggot who likes to take potshots at Christians. And I'm sorry you're so attached to trying to get a "gotcha", that you keep screaming "COPE! COPE!" whenever we disagree upon something. You aren't going to win this argument. El Elyon's power and dominion over other gods is complete; it was pretty straight forward in Psalms, which I have provided you, and was also done so with Deuteronomy.

Deuteronomy 32:8-9





And yet this is not mentioned within the story. (at all) There is no divine manifestation that is revealed, only that someone is angry. You argue that it may be Chemosh. Okay, that's one out of three people who might be angry. The people of Judah and Edom could also be angry. And seeing as Chemosh has no power over the people of Israel, as they were not allotted to them by El Elyon, nor was it stated in the passage that El Elyon had allowed Chemosh to do so, and it is not even definitive WHO left, your argument is at best shaky and at worst, a complete flop.

EDIT

Oh right, you're also probably also thinking of the Moab king's boast of his victory over the Son of Omri, King of Israel. Wherein it boasts the defeat of Israel at the hands of the King of Moab. I think here, the Youtube author is conflating two different incidents. The Son of Omri was not Jehoram, who is the King of Israel in 2 Kings. Omri's son was Ahab, who is in fact, the father of Jehoram. Jehoram did not take the throne after Omri passed, that passed to Ahab, then to Jehoram's older brother Ahaziah, and then it passed to Jehoram.

King Ahab's reign was between 871-852 BC.
King Ahaziah's reign was somewhere in the early 850s, for about a year.
King Jehoram's reign was 850-840 BC.

So the war that you're referring to, where the King of Moab was victorious was between 20-30 years BEFORE the conflict that happened under King Jehoram. What this suggests to me was that, King Omri had demanded tribute from Moab. Sometime after King Omri died, the King of Moab sought to rebel under King Ahab. Sometime later, probably about ~20 years later, the King of Moab rebelled under King Jehoram.

If I were a betting man, the King(s) of Moab rebelled whenever there was a change of power, possibly viewing the new king as weak. So the first rebellion would have been in 871 BC and the second in 850 BC, respectively.




What exactly do you find perplexing about the trinity? It's a triple deity.



Bhrama, the triple deity (that is so perplexing to you) who is the all powerful Creator?



To who? Please provide proof that Zeus was deemed almighty and powerful, considering he was never portrayed that way. Nor when religious syncretism took place between Greeks, Romans, and Canaanites, did they select El Elyon as the equal to Zeus or Jupiter--nor would they have, because they are not the same. Instead, they equated him to Baal Hadad. By their own admission, the Greeks and Romans equated their patron gods to a subordinate of El Elyon.

Granted, they had a different interpretation, likely that following the Marduk/Baal stories outside the bible, but the fact remains that Zeus and Jupiter are attributed as storm gods in the same way as Baal Hadad, not as El Elyon or Enlil or YHWH.



...It literally does not. See Psalms and Deuteronomy. Literal stories of how El Elyon stripped the Elohim of both their positions and immortality for not upholding their duties.
Dude, you really, really need to actually read the bible before you pull out these pop culture interpretations based on taking one scripture out of context. Psalm 82's context is very specifically and obviously aimed at human judges if you look at the surrounding verses, and the word your translation is calling "gods" also means "Made in the image of God" ie. humans.

Jesus even wryly cites this verse in John 10:34,35 where the Israelites seek to stone because he "Made himself God" and Jesus points out that humans have been called gods in the scripture before. The idea that these were literally gods is complete hipster nonsense. Even with your 2 Kings reference to wrath some translators have noted that the wording could also mean "And Israel grew indignant" rather than the indignation being against Israel. Pulling out this one verse out of context to build a narrative that Chemosh must have beaten Yahweh, after the three kings killed their armies, burned all their cities, cut down all their trees, and ruined all their fields leaving Moab a complete ruin, is pretty nonsensical.

Your reference to Deuteronomy 32:8-9 is even more ridiculous, you're relying on an out-of-context scripture from a single very specific and obscure translation (Very few bibles use that phrase) that doesn't mean what you think, and even that translation includes a footnote that the word rendered "gods" means "Israelites."




Getting back to fantasy worlds and away from Yahweh again, how would Belzerg stack up against the US? They appear to have significantly better tactical operations than most, the Explosion spell is not quite at strategic nuke level but pretty danged big compared to most fantasy world's fireballs, MOAB or possibly even lower tacnuke level, and possessed of a vast array of utility powers covering everything from stealth to long-range teleportation. Their healing is good enough to raise the dead and heal nearly any wound successfully, and they do tend to be able to organize armies when they need to.

I think their relatively small population would keep them from taking the US but pound for pound they might even stack up well enough to win if the US is adjusted for size.
 

The Original Sixth

Well-known member
Founder
Dude, you really, really need to actually read the bible before you pull out these pop culture interpretations based on taking one scripture out of context.

Lol, wut.

Psalm 82's context is very specifically and obviously aimed at human judges if you look at the surrounding verses, and the word your translation is calling "gods" also means "Made in the image of God" ie. humans.

No, it isn't. Elohim, which is the word that is used, is used to refer to the Sons of El Elyon. This is well researched and appears outside the Bible.

The word elohim or 'elohiym (ʼĕlôhîym) is a grammatically plural noun for "gods" or "deities" or various other words in Biblical Hebrew.[1][2][4][7][8][9][12]

In Hebrew, the ending -im normally indicates a masculine plural. However, when referring to the Jewish God, Elohim is usually understood to be grammatically singular (i.e. it governs a singular verb or adjective).[6][13] In Modern Hebrew, it is often referred to in the singular despite the -im ending that denotes plural masculine nouns in Hebrew.[14][15]

It is generally thought that Elohim is derived from eloah,[1][2][4][7][8][9] the latter being an expanded form of the Northwest Semitic noun 'il.[16][17] The related nouns eloah (אלוה) and el (אֵל) are used as proper names or as generics, in which case they are interchangeable with elohim.[17] The term contains an added heh as third radical to the biconsonantal root. Discussions of the etymology of elohim essentially concern this expansion. An exact cognate outside of Hebrew is found in Ugaritic ʾlhm,[16] the family of El, the creator god and chief deity of the Canaanite pantheon, in Biblical Aramaic ʼĔlāhā and later Syriac Alaha ("God"), and in Arabic ʾilāh ("god, deity") (or Allah as "The [single] God").[16] "El" (the basis for the extended root ʾlh) is usually derived from a root meaning "to be strong" and/or "to be in front".[17]
Elohim - Wikipedia

Elohim occurs frequently throughout the Torah. In some cases (e.g. Exodus 3:4, "Elohim called unto him out of the midst of the bush ..."), it behaves like a singular noun in Hebrew grammar, and is then generally understood to denote the single God of Israel. In other cases, Elohim acts as an ordinary plural of the word Eloah, and refers to the polytheistic notion of multiple gods (for example, Exodus 20:3, "You shall have no other gods before me").

The word Elohim occurs more than 2500 times in the Hebrew Bible, with meanings ranging from "gods" in a general sense (as in Exodus 12:12, where it describes "the gods of Egypt"), to specific gods (the frequent references to Yahweh as the "elohim" of Israel), to demons, seraphim, and other supernatural beings, to the spirits of the dead brought up at the behest of King Saul in 1 Samuel 28:13, and even to kings and prophets (e.g., Exodus 4:16).[17] The phrase bene elohim, translated "sons of the Gods", has an exact parallel in Ugaritic and Phoenician texts, referring to the council of the gods.[17]

Elohim occupy the seventh rank of ten in the famous medieval rabbinic scholar Maimonides' Jewish angelic hierarchy. Maimonides said: "I must premise that every Hebrew [now] knows that the term Elohim is a homonym, and denotes God, angels, judges, and the rulers of countries, ..."[10]

It was later re-interpreted by readers to refer to angels or judges or kings, because they had grown to denounce that any sort of other divinity exists. But it is clear in the way that it is used, it's actual meaning, and historical context--that it generally refers to gods. Elohim is the masculine plural of gods.

And you can see how obvious this is when we look at other versus, such as Genesis:

6 When people began to multiply on the face of the ground, and daughters were born to them, 2 the sons of God saw that they were fair; and they took wives for themselves of all that they chose. 3 Then the Lord said, “My spirit shall not abide[a] in mortals forever, for they are flesh; their days shall be one hundred twenty years.” 4 The Nephilim were on the earth in those days—and also afterward—when the sons of God went in to the daughters of humans, who bore children to them. These were the heroes that were of old, warriors of renown.

The Elohim had taken mortal wives and had produced demigods.

Jesus even wryly cites this verse in John 10:34,35 where the Israelites seek to stone because he "Made himself God" and Jesus points out that humans have been called gods in the scripture before. The idea that these were literally gods is complete hipster nonsense. Even with your 2 Kings reference to wrath some translators have noted that the wording could also mean "And Israel grew indignant" rather than the indignation being against Israel. Pulling out this one verse out of context to build a narrative that Chemosh must have beaten Yahweh, after the three kings killed their armies, burned all their cities, cut down all their trees, and ruined all their fields leaving Moab a complete ruin, is pretty nonsensical.

By hipster nonsense, you mean well researched and supported by Biblical and Caananite sources?

Nor does your argument make sense within the context of Psalms (that you insist I take out of context);

Psalm 82[a]
The Downfall of Unjust Gods
1 A psalm of Asaph.

I
God takes a stand in the divine council,
gives judgment in the midst of the gods.

2 “How long will you judge unjustly
and favor the cause of the wicked?
Selah
3 “Defend the lowly and fatherless;
render justice to the afflicted and needy.
4 Rescue the lowly and poor;
deliver them from the hand of the wicked.”
II
5 [b]The gods neither know nor understand,
wandering about in darkness,
and all the world’s foundations shake.
6 I declare: “Gods though you be,[c]
offspring of the Most High all of you,
7 Yet like any mortal you shall die;
like any prince you shall fall.”

8 Arise, O God, judge the earth,[d]
for yours are all the nations

First, Psalms state that this is a divine council. Since when would these judges be at a divine council of God? And it is El Elyon who passes judgement upon the Sons of El, declaring that they had not carried out their duty and as punishment, they like any prince, shall fall.

Your reference to Deuteronomy 32:8-9 is even more ridiculous, you're relying on an out-of-context scripture from a single very specific and obscure translation (Very few bibles use that phrase) that doesn't mean what you think, and even that translation includes a footnote that the word rendered "gods" means "Israelites."

The fuck I am. Nor does the passage make sense if you were to change it.

When the Most High apportioned the nations,
when he divided humankind,
he fixed the boundaries of the peoples
according to the number of the gods;[c]
9 the Lord’s own portion was his people,
Jacob his allotted share.

How does replacing gods with people make sense? Here it is clearly El Elyon dividing the nations of the earth among the gods. He's dividing up the world. And he took for himself, the people of Israel. He had declared that his allotted share. This is something he later reverses in Psalms, because they had failed in their charge.

What you are referring to, that of Elohim meaning angels or judges, was a mistranslation that came about in the 17th century.

Angels and judges[edit]
In a few cases in the Greek Septuagint (LXX), Hebrew elohim with a plural verb, or with implied plural context, was rendered either angeloi ("angels") or to kriterion tou Theou ("the judgement of God").[32] These passages then entered first the Latin Vulgate, then the English King James Version (KJV) as "angels" and "judges", respectively. From this came the result that James Strong, for example, listed "angels" and "judges" as possible meanings for elohim with a plural verb in his Strong's Concordance,[1][2] and the same is true of many other 17th-20th century reference works.[citation needed] Both Gesenius' Hebrew Lexicon[citation needed] and the Brown–Driver–Briggs Lexicon[2] list both "angels" and "judges" as possible alternative meanings of elohim with plural verbs and adjectives.

Gesenius and Ernst Wilhelm Hengstenberg have questioned the reliability of the Septuagint translation in this matter. Gesenius lists the meaning without agreeing with it.[33] Hengstenberg stated that the Hebrew Bible text never uses elohim to refer to "angels", but that the Septuagint translators refused the references to "gods" in the verses they amended to "angels".[34]

The Greek New Testament (NT) quotes Psalms 8:4–6 in Hebrews 2:6b-8a, where the Greek NT has "ἀγγέλους" (angelous) in vs. 7,[35] quoting Psalms 8:5 (8:6 in the LXX), which also has "ἀγγέλους" in a version of the Greek Septuagint.[36] In the KJV, elohim (Strong's number H430) is translated as "angels" only in Psalm 8:5.[37]

The KJV translates elohim as "judges" in Exodus 21:6; Exodus 22:8; twice in Exodus 22:9 [38] and as "judge" in 1 Samuel 2:25.

Angels and Fallen angels cited in the Hebrew Bible and external literature contain the related noun el (אֵל) such as Michael, Gabriel and Samael.[39]
Elohim - Wikipedia


This is pretty well researched and the evidence is in strong support. Elohim means 'gods'. Maybe don't fucking talk down to me as if I haven't done any research. The etymology of the word is clearly traceable and is pretty straightforward. The confusion generally comes from bibles that rely upon the KJV, whose translation breaks with literal centuries of accepted definition, for no discernable reason--other than to reduce the importance of the divine beings that are discussed.
 
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Bear Ribs

Well-known member
This is pretty well researched and the evidence is in strong support. Elohim means 'gods'. Maybe don't fucking talk down to me as if I haven't done any research. The etymology of the word is clearly traceable and is pretty straightforward. The confusion generally comes from bibles that rely upon the KJV, whose translation breaks with literal centuries of accepted definition, for no discernable reason--other than to reduce the importance of the divine beings that are discussed.
Maybe if you actually do some research? Let's look at Your. Own. Sources. here.

The Original Sixth's own quotations above said:
The word elohim or 'elohiym (ʼĕlôhîym) is a grammatically plural noun for "gods" or "deities" or various other words in Biblical Hebrew.[1][2][4][7][8][9][12]

...

The word Elohim occurs more than 2500 times in the Hebrew Bible, with meanings ranging from "gods" in a general sense (as in Exodus 12:12, where it describes "the gods of Egypt"), to specific gods (the frequent references to Yahweh as the "elohim" of Israel), to demons, seraphim, and other supernatural beings, to the spirits of the dead brought up at the behest of King Saul in 1 Samuel 28:13, and even to kings and prophets (e.g., Exodus 4:16).[17]
Your own quotations contradict everything you said. Elohim means gods... and demons, and angels, and ghosts, and even humans with authority. Much research, wow.
 

The Original Sixth

Well-known member
Founder
Maybe if you actually do some research? Let's look at Your. Own. Sources. here.


Your own quotations contradict everything you said. Elohim means gods... and demons, and angels, and ghosts, and even humans with authority. Much research, wow.

I'm aware of what it says jackass. Did you look at the source?

The Dictionary of Deities and Demons in the Bible (DDD) is an academic reference work edited by Karel van der Toorn, Bob Becking and Pieter W. van der Horst which contains academic articles on the named gods, angels, and demons in the books of the Hebrew Bible, Septuagint and Apocrypha, as well as the New Testament and patristic literature. Its first edition (Brill) appeared in 1995 and was chosen by Choice magazine of the American Library Association as Best Reference Work of 1996. The second extensively revised edition (Eerdmans, 960pp) appeared in 1999, under the auspices of the Faculty of Theology of Utrecht University.[1] An electronic edition appeared in 2001. Advisors included Hans Dieter Betz, André Caquot (1923–2004), Jonas C. Greenfield (1926–1995), Erik Hornung Professor of Egyptology at Basel University, Michael E. Stone of the Hebrew University of Jerusalem, and Manfred Weipert of the University of Heidelberg.

Because that same source, if I'm not mistaken, also points to the Canaanite use of the word, which is as I've described. One might ask why the Hebews, whose language and religious beliefs were similar to the Canaanites, would suddenly misuse the term. And as the article points out, the shift in interpretation did not come with the Hebrews, it came later with the KJV, which was made as early as 1606, by the Church of England after they split with the Catholic Church.

EDIT -- Upon further reading, I was way off about the split in terms. It appears that the shift in terms occurred with the Masoretic Texts. It was used as the basis for the KJV and is used in some Catholic versions. It was however, edited to downplay the divine positions of the Elohim. It however, does not deny God's authority over the spiritual world. And in fact, when put into its proper reading, the Bible is pretty much based entirely on El Elyon's supreme authority and his war against divine traitors. That being the Serpent, the Watchers, and the Elohim who had failed in Psalms.

And at which point, you have English interpreters translating a work from Latin, which had been previously translated from Greek--from its original Hebrew. And while I don't think that this is a case of someone misunderstanding the word or its use, but rather someone deeming that there exist no other gods the El Elyon, the reinterpretation of Elohim from meaning gods to angels or judges, where it makes the most sense--is not an unreasonable conclusion.

It's just in the face of sources closer to the original text, such as the Canaanite language, older sources, and those less mangled by time and space, we should accept that as the original translation.

And I've noticed you've quietly dropped your argument over Psalms and Deuteronomy. Is that a silent admission that your interpretation of Elohim is less sensible than mine and leading scholars?

EDIT

But tell you what, let's look at a work by Michael S. Heiser, a biblical scholar.


In his conference paper, titled "Are YHWH and El Separate Deities in Psalm 82 and Deuteronomy 32?", he and the one he critics, Mark S. Smith, are discussing the nature of YHWH and El Elyon. Specifically, Smith argues:

"The author of Psalm 82 deposes the older theology, as Israel's deity is called to assume a new role as judge of all the world. Yet at the same time, Psalm 82, like Deut 32:8-9, preserves outlines of the older theology it is rejecting. From the perspective of this older theology, YHWH did not belong to the top tier of the pantheon. Instead, in early Israel the god of Israel apparently belonged to the second tier of the pantheon; he was not the presider god, but one of his sons."

Heiser rejects Smith's position that YHWH and El are different entities in the two books, but I specifically want to focus on a portion of his argument (and I encourage you to read the conference paper in full);

"As the scholarly studies on the divine council point out in terms of personnel the _____ and ______ were distinguished, but shcolars draw attention to the Qumran material say that this deity vocabulary now refers to Angels. For example, Mark Smith asserts that later Israelite monotheism, as represented by Second Isaiah, "reduced and modified the sense of divinity attached to angels" so that words like ___ in the Dead Sea Scrolls must refer to mere angels or heavenly powers "rather than full-fledged deities."

(I'll stop and note here that I cannot replicate the Hebrew words, hence the blanks--and Smith is arguing for an older point in which the term Angel and Elohim were merged)

" 'L. Handy also confidently states that "by the time of the Dead Sea Scrolls...the word ____ was used even by contemporary authors to mean 'messengers' or what we call 'angels' when it was not used to refer to YHWH...these _____ previously understood as deities, had come to be understood as angels.'

But why must these terms refer to angels? Whence does this assurance emerge? Why does the same vocabulary mean one thing before the exile but another after? A tagged computer search of the Dead Sea Scrolls data-base reveals there are no lines from any Qumran text where a "deity class" term (_______/________) for a member of the heavenly host overlaps with the word _____, and so the conclusion is not data driven. In fact, there are only eleven instances in the entire Qumran corpus where these plural deity terms and ________ occur within fifty words of each other. Scholars like C. Newsom, trying to account for the data, refer to these deities as "angelic elim" a term that is oxymoronic with respect to the tier members of the divine council

It is difficult to discern what else guides such a conclusion other than the preconception of a certain trajectory toward intolerant monotheism. Such reasoning unfortunately assumes what it seeks to prove. The plural deity words in texts composed after the exile cannot actually express a belief in a council of gods, because that would result in henotheism or polytheism. Rather, the word must mean "angels", because that would not be henotheism or polytheism. The consensus reconstruction becomes the guiding hermeneutic."

You can find the source here:
 
Last edited:

Bear Ribs

Well-known member
Peeling this off a vs. debate to avoid continuing the derail there.


I'm aware of what it says jackass. Did you look at the source?


Because that same source, if I'm not mistaken, also points to the Canaanite use of the word, which is as I've described. One might ask why the Hebews, whose language and religious beliefs were similar to the Canaanites, would suddenly misuse the term. And as the article points out, the shift in interpretation did not come with the Hebrews, it came later with the KJV, which was made as early as 1606, by the Church of England after they split with the Catholic Church.
They didn't misuse the word, it simply isn't used as you described, including use of other words by the Caananites (which didn't use Elohim in the first place, that claim is an error on your part). I actually do the research and I've read the book.

Dictionary of Dieties and Demons page 353 said:
Though having the generic sense of ‘god’, the term is also used in an absolute sense (‘the god’, c.g. Gen 5:22) whence it developed the function of a proper name (‘God’): when an Israelite suppliant says his soul thirsts for 'élóhím he is not referring to just any god but to ~ Yahweh the god of Israel (Ps 42:3). Since the Israelite concept of divinity included all preternatural beings, also lower deities (in modern usage referred to as ‘spirits’, ‘angels’, ‘demons’, 'semi-gods'. and the like) may be called 'élóhim. Thus the -teraphim (Gen 31: 30.32), anonymous heavenly beings (Ps 8:6; LXX ayyedou), and the -*spirits of the dead (1 Sam 28:13) are referred to as ‘gods’. A metaphorical use of the term—metaphorical from our point of view—occurs when it is applied to living human beings, such as -—-Moses (Exod 4:16; 7:1) and the king (Ps 45:7).

It notably also mentions on page 360 that yes, the Caananite equivalent is also used for humans, such as the Amarna Letters where the Caananites refer to Pharoah who they're vassals of using the plural form of a somewhat similar word to Elohim, though the Caananites did not use Elohim itself.

Dictionary of Dieties and Demons page 360 said:
the Amarna letters, where the Pharaoh is repeatedly addressed by his Canaanite vassals as DINGIR.MES-ia, literally ‘my gods’, but plainly referring to one person only.

[Section of References snipped]

Characteristically West-Semitic is the use of the term 'gods' to designate the spirits of the dead. The short hymn to Shapshu that closes the Baal Cycle uses rpim (—Rephaim) in parallelism with ilaym, and ilm in parallelism with mtm
This shows that, again, Elohim does not always refer to a god but rather "Person or diety with power" and the Caananite equivalent also gets applied to humans with power as well as ghosts, the term is not exclusive to gods alone.

And at which point, you have English interpreters translating a work from Latin, which had been previously translated from Greek--from its original Hebrew. And while I don't think that this is a case of someone misunderstanding the word or its use, but rather someone deeming that there exist no other gods the El Elyon, the reinterpretation of Elohim from meaning gods to angels or judges, where it makes the most sense--is not an unreasonable conclusion.

It's just in the face of sources closer to the original text, such as the Canaanite language, older sources, and those less mangled by time and space, we should accept that as the original translation.
No, this is a case of you willfully misinterpreting a word and claiming it only ever refers to gods, when the Israelites didn't use it that way and the Caananites didn't use it at all.

And I've noticed you've quietly dropped your argument over Psalms and Deuteronomy. Is that a silent admission that your interpretation of Elohim is less sensible than mine and leading scholars?
I didn't drop it so much as win so thoroughly nobody with any sense would continue the argument. I thought to spare your feelings when even the translator notes in your own cherry-picked bible translation said your interpretation was wrong. But if you insist on taking this to its final stupidity...

Let's list a few places humans are called Elohim then.


Exodus 22:8,9 is a very solid start. This section of the bible deals with judges and how they are to rule in cases of theft. Let's compare the Hebrew word for word.

Strong'sHebrewEnglishMorphology
5921 [e]עַֽל־
‘al-
ForPrep
3605 [e]כָּל־
kāl-
anyN-msc
1697 [e]דְּבַר־
də-ḇar-
kindN-msc
6588 [e]פֶּ֡שַׁע
pe-ša‘
of trespassN-ms
5921 [e]עַל־
‘al-
[whether] concerningPrep
7794 [e]שׁ֡וֹר
šō-wr
an oxN-ms
5921 [e]עַל־
‘al-
uponPrep
2543 [e]חֲ֠מוֹר
ḥă-mō-wr
a donkeyN-ms
5921 [e]עַל־
‘al-
uponPrep
7716 [e]שֶׂ֨ה
śeh
a sheepN-ms
5921 [e]עַל־
‘al-
orPrep
8008 [e]שַׂלְמָ֜ה
śal-māh
clothingN-fs
5921 [e]עַל־
‘al-
[or] forPrep
3605 [e]כָּל־
kāl-
any kindN-msc
9 [e]אֲבֵדָ֗ה
’ă-ḇê-ḏāh,
of lost thingN-fs
834 [e]אֲשֶׁ֤ר
’ă-šer
whichPro-r
559 [e]יֹאמַר֙
yō-mar
[another] claimsV-Qal-Imperf-3ms
3588 [e]כִּי־
kî-
thatConj
1931 [e]ה֣וּא
[is] itPro-3ms
2088 [e]זֶ֔ה
zeh,
thisPro-ms
5704 [e]עַ֚ד
‘aḏ
beforePrep
430 [e]הָֽאֱלֹהִ֔ים
hā-’ĕ-lō-hîm,
the judgesArt | N-mp
935 [e]יָבֹ֖א
yā-ḇō
shall comeV-Qal-Imperf-3ms
1697 [e]דְּבַר־
də-ḇar-
the causeN-msc
8147 [e]שְׁנֵיהֶ֑ם
šə-nê-hem;
of the two of themNumber-mdc | 3mp
834 [e]אֲשֶׁ֤ר
’ă-šer
[and] whomeverPro-r
7561 [e]יַרְשִׁיעֻן֙
yar-šî-‘un
condemnV-Hifil-Imperf-3mp | Pn
430 [e]אֱלֹהִ֔ים
’ĕ-lō-hîm,
the judgesN-mp
7999 [e]יְשַׁלֵּ֥ם
yə-šal-lêm
shall payV-Piel-Imperf-3ms
8147 [e]שְׁנַ֖יִם
šə-na-yim
doubleNumber-md
7453 [e]לְרֵעֵֽהוּ׃
lə-rê-‘ê-hū.
to his neighborPrep-l | N-msc | 3ms
So here we have Elohim referring to human judges twice in rapid succession, there is no possible way this can refer to a god given the context of human judges deciding on cases of theft and property damage. This is also what Psalms was referring to as it deals with human judges, Elohim, failing to follow the rules proscribed in Exodus 22.

We can get another extremely solid read in Psalm 45:1 and 6,7.

Strong'sHebrewEnglishMorphology
5329 [e]לַמְנַצֵּ֣חַ
lam-naṣ-ṣê-aḥ
To the Chief MusicianPrep-l, Art | V-Piel-Prtcpl-ms
5921 [e]עַל־
‘a-lō-šō-
Set toPrep
7799 [e]שֹׁ֭שַׁנִּים
šan-nîm
the LilliesN-cp
1121 [e]לִבְנֵי־
liḇ-nê-
of the sonsPrep-l | N-mpc
7141 [e]קֹ֑רַח
qō-raḥ;
of KorahN-proper-ms
4905 [e]מַ֝שְׂכִּ֗יל
maś-kîl,
a ContemplationN-ms
7892 [e]שִׁ֣יר
šîr
a SongN-msc
3039 [e]יְדִידֹֽת׃
yə-ḏî-ḏōṯ.
of LoveN-fp
7370 [e]רָ֘חַ֤שׁ
rā-ḥaš
Is overflowingV-Qal-Perf-3ms
3820 [e]לִבִּ֨י ׀
lib-bî
My heartN-msc | 1cs
1697 [e]דָּ֘בָ֤ר
dā-ḇār
with a themeN-ms
2896 [e]ט֗וֹב
ṭō-wḇ,
goodAdj-ms
559 [e]אֹמֵ֣ר
’ō-mêr
reciteV-Qal-Prtcpl-ms
589 [e]אָ֭נִי
’ā-nî
IPro-1cs
4639 [e]מַעֲשַׂ֣י
ma-‘ă-śay
my compositionN-mpc | 1cs
4428 [e]לְמֶ֑לֶךְ
lə-me-leḵ;
concerning the KingPrep-l | N-ms
3956 [e]לְ֝שׁוֹנִ֗י
lə-šō-w-nî,
My tongue [is]N-csc | 1cs
5842 [e]עֵ֤ט ׀
‘êṭ
the penN-ms
5608 [e]סוֹפֵ֬ר
sō-w-p̄êr
of a writerN-ms
4106 [e]מָהִֽיר׃
mā-hîr.
readyAdj-ms
Now you might be saying, wait, what's this have to do with anything? Elohim doesn't appear! Well, I'm establishing context. Psalm 45 is specifically a patrotic song about the king of Israel, a human. But also... sits on an Elohim?

We see, in Psalm 45:6...
3678 [e]כִּסְאֲךָ֣
kis-’ă-ḵā
Your throne [is]N-msc | 2ms
430 [e]אֱ֭לֹהִים
’ĕ-lō-hîm
GodN-mp
5769 [e]עוֹלָ֣ם
‘ō-w-lām
foreverN-ms
5703 [e]וָעֶ֑ד
wā-‘eḏ;
and everConj-w | N-ms
7626 [e]שֵׁ֥בֶט
šê-ḇeṭ
a scepterN-msc
4334 [e]מִ֝ישֹׁ֗ר
mî-šōr,
of righteousnessN-ms
7626 [e]שֵׁ֣בֶט
šê-ḇeṭ
[is] the scepterN-msc
4438 [e]מַלְכוּתֶֽךָ׃
mal-ḵū-ṯe-ḵā.
of Your kingdomN-fsc | 2ms

The throne the King sits on is also an Elohim. Even inanimate objects, if they represent power and authority, are Elohim.

If we look at Psalm 82:1 itself in this context we can see immediately why it's also referring to human judges as Elohim. The most significant word isn't Elohim, though, it's the Divine Congregation, וְעַֽל־ אַהֲרֹן֙ בַּעֲדַת־ קֹ֔רַח בְּהַצֹּתָ֖ם or ba·‘ă·ḏaṯ. You see, ·‘ă·ḏaṯ has a very specific meaning in the bible, congregation but not of gods. I'll get to that shortly.
210 [e]מִזְמ֗וֹר
miz-mō-wr,
A PsalmN-ms
623 [e]לְאָ֫סָ֥ף
lə-’ā-sāp̄
of AsaphPrep-l | N-proper-ms
430 [e]אֱ‍ֽלֹהִ֗ים
’ĕlō-hîm,
GodN-mp
5324 [e]נִצָּ֥ב
niṣ-ṣāḇ
takes His standV-Nifal-Prtcpl-ms
5712 [e]בַּעֲדַת־
ba-‘ă-ḏaṯ-
in the congregationPrep-b | N-fsc
410 [e]אֵ֑ל
’êl;
of the divineN-ms
7130 [e]בְּקֶ֖רֶב
bə-qe-reḇ
amongPrep-b | N-msc
430 [e]אֱלֹהִ֣ים
’ĕ-lō-hîm
the godsN-mp
8199 [e]יִשְׁפֹּֽט׃
yiš-pōṭ.
He judgesV-Qal-Imperf-3ms


It was later re-interpreted by readers to refer to angels or judges or kings, because they had grown to denounce that any sort of other divinity exists. But it is clear in the way that it is used, it's actual meaning, and historical context--that it generally refers to gods. Elohim is the masculine plural of gods.
Bull$&#%. Elohim is used to refer to all sorts of things who aren't gods. Nobody re-interpreted Elohim to refer to Samuel's Ghost in 1 Sam 28:13. Nobody re-interpreted Elohim to refer to the King of Israel in Ps 45:7. The ancient texts didn't change to call Moses an Elohim in Exod 4:16 and 7:1. It didn't mysteriously change to refer to human judges in Exodus 22:8,9 and Psalm 82:1. It's always been used that way. People in the 16th century didn't re-interpret that the throne of a mortal king is an Elohim in Psalm 45:6, nor the king himself being one in 45:7. Elohim simply never had the meaning of gods exclusively.

And you can see how obvious this is when we look at other versus, such as Genesis:

The Elohim had taken mortal wives and had produced demigods.
But it doesn't really say that, does it? The assumption that they are demi-gods isn't in the bible. It says they produced Nephilim, which meaning is still disputed in some corners. However, it's often translated as "Giants" which makes sense given we see the Nephilim again at Numbers 13:33 in reference to humans of unusual size and strength, which were associated with the Anakim... who were driven out by Caleb and went to join the Philistines where their (probable) descendent Goliath made trouble for Israel later making the "giant" translation far more in-line with the scripture, and far more reasonable, than hipster nonsense about demi-gods.

More importantly, it doesn't support your definition of Elohim, you're using circular reasoning here, the Elohim produced Demi-gods which must prove that the Elohim were gods... but both assertions require that you assume the other assertion is true.

By hipster nonsense, you mean well researched and supported by Biblical and Caananite sources?
No, I mean hipster nonsense. Your "Well Researched" source is a hipster in a YouTube video who opens up with "Chemosh, the God who kicked Yahweh's Butt" and makes numerous factual errors (at 6:18 he makes the claim that Israel is advanced on Moab while literally, onscreen, you can see the biblical text he's butchering and it says Moab advanced into an ambush by Israel. Never mind that said kicking of butts amounted to Israel destroying the city, cutting down the orchards, killing the army, and ruining every field, followed by the king of Moab being forced to murder his own son as they tear down the city walls. If that's a victory I'd hate to see what he considers a defeat. And that's literally your best source.

Then the moron goes on to cite the Moab Stone, which among its boasts, claims that with the power of Chemosh, Mesha destroyed Israel forever which, well, I think we have some slight historical proof that's not true, of course he leaves that part out since it would show how bad his line of reasoning and proof is.

Meanwhile all the actual scholarly sources you've linked to directly contradict your position, which is dependent on using the term Elohim in only a super-strict manner that is inconsistent with how it's used in the bible, and you're unclear on what Adat is so you screwed up there as well. Your own scriptural references included a footnote saying your interpretation was wrong, your own Wikipedia citation says that Elohim refers to all sorts of people who aren't divinities, your own scholarly references say your claims about Caananite uses are incorrect.

Nor does your argument make sense within the context of Psalms (that you insist I take out of context);

First, Psalms state that this is a divine council. Since when would these judges be at a divine council of God? And it is El Elyon who passes judgement upon the Sons of El, declaring that they had not carried out their duty and as punishment, they like any prince, shall fall.
See, this is the kind of thing that tells me you did no research and have no clue what you're talking about, aside from hipster nonsense. No actual biblical scholar would make the mistake you did here. A divine council you say? Humans wouldn't be at a divine council of God, you falsely claim? What's the original Hebrew word? ‘ă·ḏaṯ. Now, where else does ‘ă·ḏaṯ appear?

Exodus 12:3: Refers to a group of humans.
Exodus 12:6: Refers to a group of humans.
Leviticus 16:5: Refers to a group of humans.
Numbers 1:53: Refers to a group of humans.
Numbers 25:6: Refers to a group of humans.
Joshua 22:12: Refers to a group of humans.
Judges 14:8 : Refers to... a swarm of bees. This is, in fact, the sole time in the entire Bible it doesn't refer to a group of humans.
There are around 40 or so more, all of whom refer to a group of humans.

Every reference besides Judges 14:8 always uses ‘ă·ḏaṯ to refer to a congregation of humans. But you wouldn't know that, not having done your research, so you make a hipster nonsense argument like "How could human judges be at a divine council of God" because you're not aware that said term always refers to a council of humans. ‘ă·ḏaṯ never, ever, refers to a congregation of gods, it's used for mortals, with the "Divinity" addendum meaning mortals who stand before God.

Of course, the second issue is that we know full well what is being referred to here and that it's human judges because Jesus quotes the scripture in John 10:34 and applies it to humans. A great many scholars, actual biblical scholars rather than a hipster on YouTube, have analyzed this passage and come to the same conclusion: Psalm 82 refers to humans. Only by taking it out of context and isolating the verse can it be misinterpreted to refer to

Barnes' Notes on the Bible
Unto whom the word of God came - That is, who were his servants, or who received their dignity and honor only because the law of God was intrusted to them. "The Word of God" here means the command of God; his commission to them to do justice.
The scripture cannot be broken - See Matthew 5:19. The authority of the Scripture is final; it cannot be set aside. The meaning is, "If, therefore, the Scripture uses the word "god" אלהים ̀elohiym as applied to magistrates, it settles the question that it is right to apply the term to those in office and authority. If applied to them, it may be to others in similar offices. It cannot, therefore, be blasphemy to use this word as applicable to a personage so much more exalted than mere magistrates as the Messiah."


Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary
35, 36. If he called them gods unto whom the word of God came … Say ye of him whom the Father hath sanctified and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest—The whole force of this reasoning, which has been but in part seized by the commentators, lies in what is said of the two parties compared. The comparison of Himself with mere men, divinely commissioned, is intended to show (as Neander well expresses it) that the idea of a communication of the Divine Majesty to human nature was by no means foreign to the revelations of the Old Testament;

Matthew Poole's Commentary
If God dignified those men (and many of them were also vile and sinful men) with the title of gods, because they had a commission to govern people according to the law of God; and none must contradict what God hath said in his word; there can be no falsehood in the revelation of any part of the Divine will.

Ellicott's Commentary for English Readers
(1) Standeth.—In the Hebrew a participle, with an official ring about it. (See Isaiah 3:13.) It is used to designate departmental officers (1Kings 4:5; 1Kings 4:7; 1Kings 4:27; 1Kings 9:23. Comp. 1Samuel 22:9; Ruth 2:5-6). Thus the psalm opens with the solemn statement that God had taken His official place as president of the bench of judges.

Matthew Henry's Concise Commentary
82:1-5 Magistrates are the mighty in authority for the public good. Magistrates are the ministers of God's providence, for keeping up order and peace, and particularly in punishing evil-doers, and protecting those that do well. Good princes and good judges, who mean well, are under Divine direction; and bad ones, who mean ill, are under Divine restraint. The authority of God is to be submitted to, in those governors whom his providence places over us. But when justice is turned from what is right, no good can be expected. The evil actions of public persons are public mischiefs.

Keil and Delitzsch Biblical Commentary on the Old Testament
God comes forward and makes Himself heard first of all as censuring and admonishing. The "congregation of God" is, as in Numbers 27:17; Numbers 31:16; Joshua 22:16., "the congregation of (the sons of) Israel," which God has purchased from among the nations (Psalm 74:2), and upon which as its Lawgiver He has set His divine impress. The psalmist and seer sees Elohim standing in this congregation of God. The part. Niph. (as in Isaiah 3:13) denotes not so much the suddenness and unpreparedness, as, rather, the statue-like immobility and terrifying designfulness of His appearance. Within the range of the congregation of God this holds good of the elohim. The right over life and death, with which the administration of justice cannot dispense, is a prerogative of God. From the time of Genesis 9:6, however, He has transferred the execution of this prerogative to mankind, and instituted in mankind an office wielding the sword of justice, which also exists in His theocratic congregation, but here has His positive law as the basis of its continuance and as the rule of its action. Everywhere among men, but here pre-eminently, those in authority are God's delegates and the bearers of His image, and therefore as His representatives are also themselves called elohim, "gods" (which the lxx in Exodus 21:6 renders τὸ κριτήριον τοῦ Θεοῦ, and the Targums here, as in Exodus 22:7-8, Exodus 22:27 uniformly, דּיּניּא). The God who has conferred this exercise of power upon these subordinate elohim, without their resigning it of themselves, now sits in judgment in their midst. ישׁפּט of that which takes place before the mind's eye of the psalmist.
 

The Original Sixth

Well-known member
Founder

Yeah, no. Not yet. We're going to straighten this out first. Because I have no idea who you think you're talking to, because you haven't kept it straight.


They didn't misuse the word, it simply isn't used as you described, including use of other words by the Caananites (which didn't use Elohim in the first place, that claim is an error on your part). I actually do the research and I've read the book.

I'm not saying they misused the word.

This shows that, again, Elohim does not always refer to a god but rather "Person or diety with power" and the Caananite equivalent also gets applied to humans with power as well as ghosts, the term is not exclusive to gods alone.

What examples do they cite?

No, this is a case of you willfully misinterpreting a word and claiming it only ever refers to gods, when the Israelites didn't use it that way and the Caananites didn't use it at all.

I am not saying that Elohim always refers to gods, I am citing the instances where they are.

I didn't drop it so much as win so thoroughly nobody with any sense would continue the argument. I thought to spare your feelings when even the translator notes in your own cherry-picked bible translation said your interpretation was wrong. But if you insist on taking this to its final stupidity...

You act like I pull this shit straight out of my ass.

Bull$&#%. Elohim is used to refer to all sorts of things who aren't gods. Nobody re-interpreted Elohim to refer to Samuel's Ghost in 1 Sam 28:13. Nobody re-interpreted Elohim to refer to the King of Israel in Ps 45:7. The ancient texts didn't change to call Moses an Elohim in Exod 4:16 and 7:1. It didn't mysteriously change to refer to human judges in Exodus 22:8,9 and Psalm 82:1. It's always been used that way. People in the 16th century didn't re-interpret that the throne of a mortal king is an Elohim in Psalm 45:6, nor the king himself being one in 45:7. Elohim simply never had the meaning of gods exclusively.

Let's try this again. In the stories that I cite, where does it indicate that these are men, NOT gods?

But it doesn't really say that, does it? The assumption that they are demi-gods isn't in the bible. It says they produced Nephilim, which meaning is still disputed in some corners. However, it's often translated as "Giants" which makes sense given we see the Nephilim again at Numbers 13:33 in reference to humans of unusual size and strength, which were associated with the Anakim... who were driven out by Caleb and went to join the Philistines where their (probable) descendent Goliath made trouble for Israel later making the "giant" translation far more in-line with the scripture, and far more reasonable, than hipster nonsense about demi-gods.

I know they produced Nephilim. And the Nephilim produced the Apkallu, which many ancient scholars and intellectuals liked to attach themselves to, to bolster their image.

More importantly, it doesn't support your definition of Elohim, you're using circular reasoning here, the Elohim produced Demi-gods which must prove that the Elohim were gods... but both assertions require that you assume the other assertion is true.

The Watchers were gods. They meet the basic definition of gods, (which is also rather flexible) especially in their interaction with mortals. They needn't have been worshiped.

No, I mean hipster nonsense. Your "Well Researched" source is a hipster in a YouTube video who opens up with "Chemosh, the God who kicked Yahweh's Butt" and makes numerous factual errors (at 6:18 he makes the claim that Israel is advanced on Moab while literally, onscreen, you can see the biblical text he's butchering and it says Moab advanced into an ambush by Israel. Never mind that said kicking of butts amounted to Israel destroying the city, cutting down the orchards, killing the army, and ruining every field, followed by the king of Moab being forced to murder his own son as they tear down the city walls. If that's a victory I'd hate to see what he considers a defeat. And that's literally your best source.

...THAT WAS @King Arts WHO POSTED THAT SHIT, JACKASS.:ROFLMAO:

No kidding that shit is retarded. That's why I went to all the effort to BREAK IT.

Then the moron goes on to cite the Moab Stone, which among its boasts, claims that with the power of Chemosh, Mesha destroyed Israel forever which, well, I think we have some slight historical proof that's not true, of course he leaves that part out since it would show how bad his line of reasoning and proof is.

Yeah, he is a moron. Because the timeframe for which the Moab Stone CLAIMS to have confronted occurred BEFORE the conflict between Israel and Moab in the bible. By like, 10-30 years.

Meanwhile all the actual scholarly sources you've linked to directly contradict your position, which is dependent on using the term Elohim in only a super-strict manner that is inconsistent with how it's used in the bible, and you're unclear on what Adat is so you screwed up there as well. Your own scriptural references included a footnote saying your interpretation was wrong, your own Wikipedia citation says that Elohim refers to all sorts of people who aren't divinities, your own scholarly references say your claims about Caananite uses are incorrect.

...I was quoting Michael S. Heiser!


Michael S. Heiser
is an American biblical Old Testament scholar and Christian author.[1] His area of expertise is the nature of the spiritual realm in the Bible, namely the Divine Council and hierarchy of the spiritual order.[2] He is Executive Director of the School of Ministry at Celebration Church in Jacksonville, Florida. He was a Distance learning professor at Liberty University[3][4] and Midwestern Baptist Theological Seminary.[5] Until 2019, he was scholar-in-residence at Faithlife Corporation.

I'm working off the work I linked in the last article, as well as his two books, Demons and Angels. I can't claim to know who the best scholars are, but I'm not quoting some dipshit who thinks that El Elyon can be defeated by Chemosh.

To sum up the position he works out in Demons, the Eloyn were divine servants that he put in charge of other nations, whereas Israel was his own allotment. His call to the Divine Council was to rebuke and punish them for having failed in their charge of protecting and guiding those nations. And the only reason that they were put in charge of those nations is because it was a punishment for the incident at the Tower of Babel. He was starting fresh with Israel and would expand from there. Instead, the guardian spirits that he had put in charge abused their charges and seduced them into worshiping them, not the Almighty.

See, this is the kind of thing that tells me you did no research and have no clue what you're talking about, aside from hipster nonsense. No actual biblical scholar would make the mistake you did here. A divine council you say? Humans wouldn't be at a divine council of God, you falsely claim? What's the original Hebrew word? ‘ă·ḏaṯ. Now, where else does ‘ă·ḏaṯ appear?

I never SAID that a human couldn't be at a divine council. I am asking, why in this narration, why anyone would assume that God would just gather a bunch of judges to a divine council?
 
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Bear Ribs

Well-known member
Yeah, no. Not yet. We're going to straighten this out first. Because I have no idea who you think you're talking to, because you haven't kept it straight.

I'm not saying they misused the word.

What examples do they cite?
The ones you snipped from your reply.

I am not saying that Elohim always refers to gods, I am citing the instances where they are.

You act like I pull this shit straight out of my ass.
You cite instances you claim must be gods, which are not so when examined in context and largely pulled from somebody's backside, either yours or some other.

Let's try this again. In the stories that I cite, where does it indicate that these are men, NOT gods?
In the parts of my reply proving it, that you snipped out. I wrote like 3000 words explaining it in detail, went over the original Hebrew word by word comparing it with other verses, and provided commentary from multiple bible scholars. This is deliberate obtuseness.

I know they produced Nephilim. And the Nephilim produced the Apkallu, which many ancient scholars and intellectuals liked to attach themselves to, to bolster their image.
The Apkallu are not in the bible, they are part of Mesopotamian mythology and completely unrelated to biblical teachings. You might as well try to explain how Star Trek warp drives work by quoting Darth Vader.

The Watchers were gods. They meet the basic definition of gods, (which is also rather flexible) especially in their interaction with mortals. They needn't have been worshiped.
Let's take a look at the entire scripture there.

1 When human beings began to increase in number on the earth and daughters were born to them, 2 the sons of God saw that the daughters of humans were beautiful, and they married any of them they chose. 3 Then the Lord said, “My Spirit will not contend with humans forever, for they are mortal; their days will be a hundred and twenty years.”

4 The Nephilim were on the earth in those days—and also afterward—when the sons of God went to the daughters of humans and had children by them. They were the heroes of old, men of renown.


The entirety we know is that they thought human women were hot, boned them, and had children who are later referenced in comparison to giants in later books of the bible. One can hardly draw "they meet the basic definition of gods" from that. If that were so we'd need to conclude that my extremely large neighbor meets the basic definition of a god, as he is attracted to women, and any children he fathers are likely to be tall. So there is no reasonable basis to presume these are gods, indeed Genesis 6:2 does not even refer to them as Elohim in the first place.

Three other scriptures point to them being angels, however. Firstly, we have Job, where twice we see references to angels. In comparison with Adat that refers to human gatherings, an entirely different set of words are used to refer to a congregation of angels, first a Job 1:6 and then again at 2:1 and a third time (a variant) at Job 37:8.

The significant thing in these verses is the word formation:

בְּנֵ֥י (bə·nê) אֱלֹהִֽים׃ (’ĕ·lō·hîm)

Bene Elohim, sons of god, are consistently used to refer to congregations of angels. And Genesis 6:2 uses... Bene Elohim, sons of God, rather than Adat, congregation of people, or saying they themselves were Elohim (Gods, sometimes, also a range of other powerful people). This is significant in understanding why interpreting Psalm 82 as referring to a congregation is incorrect, we see a dramatically different set of word choices, words used explicitly and only for groups of angels and a different word set used for groups of humans, and Psalm 82 uses the word for humans. Meanwhile when other gods are mentioned in the bible such as Baal, Moloch, and Chemosh they never have the identifier of Bene, sons of [God].

Additionally, 2 Peter 2:4 and Jude 1:6 both make reference to them as Angels who forsook their position in heaven (Those books being written in Greek rather than Hebrew, of course, did not use exact Hebrew words). So taking the bible as a whole there's an extremely solid foundation that these were angels and only vague unsupported conjecture that they could be anything else.

...THAT WAS @King Arts WHO POSTED THAT SHIT, JACKASS.:ROFLMAO:

No kidding that shit is retarded. That's why I went to all the effort to BREAK IT.


Yeah, he is a moron. Because the timeframe for which the Moab Stone CLAIMS to have confronted occurred BEFORE the conflict between Israel and Moab in the bible. By like, 10-30 years.
My error then, I retract my statements there.

...I was quoting Michael S. Heiser!


I'm working off the work I linked in the last article, as well as his two books, Demons and Angels. I can't claim to know who the best scholars are, but I'm not quoting some dipshit who thinks that El Elyon can be defeated by Chemosh.

To sum up the position he works out in Demons, the Eloyn were divine servants that he put in charge of other nations, whereas Israel was his own allotment. His call to the Divine Council was to rebuke and punish them for having failed in their charge of protecting and guiding those nations. And the only reason that they were put in charge of those nations is because it was a punishment for the incident at the Tower of Babel. He was starting fresh with Israel and would expand from there. Instead, the guardian spirits that he had put in charge abused their charges and seduced them into worshiping them, not the Almighty.
These are not biblical teachings. You can generally be sure a biblical scholar isn't high quality if he can't actually stick with the bible and starts randomly inserting other nations' mythology in there. That strategy works great if you're writing a comic book or crossover fanfic, not so much looking at real history and theology.

I never SAID that a human couldn't be at a divine council. I am asking, why in this narration, why anyone would assume that God would just gather a bunch of judges to a divine council?
Which is thoroughly answered in the part you snipped. No serious bible scholar who looked at the actual words, as opposed to the translation of "Divine council" would think it involved gods because Adat doesn't ever refer to gods. Additionally, other scriptures, including Jesus himself, reference it and state that it's humans, also quoted in the part you snipped out. So it basically requires deliberate effort at mistranslation to see this as a gathering of gods.
 

The Original Sixth

Well-known member
Founder
The ones you snipped from your reply.

You cite instances you claim must be gods, which are not so when examined in context and largely pulled from somebody's backside, either yours or some other.

In the parts of my reply proving it, that you snipped out. I wrote like 3000 words explaining it in detail, went over the original Hebrew word by word comparing it with other verses, and provided commentary from multiple bible scholars. This is deliberate obtuseness.

No, it's me saving time. That is not to say I don't appreciate the effort, but you proving that there are multiple uses of Elohim doesn't really address the thrust of our disagreement, which is to say, the job titles of certain spirits within El Elyon's host, who are under his command--what they did and how El Elyon responded to their transgressions.

The Apkallu are not in the bible, they are part of Mesopotamian mythology and completely unrelated to biblical teachings. You might as well try to explain how Star Trek warp drives work by quoting Darth Vader.

Not really. I'll post the conclusion found in Demons on the apkallu.

The verdict is inescapable, Mesopotamian apkallu story accounts for each element of Genesis 6:1-4. Any interpretation of that passage that fails to account for these transparent correlations cannot be correct. We have in the apkallu saga the long-sought rationale for why Genssis 6:1-4 is in the book of Genesis. The purpose was not to tell us about the godly human line of Set or to convey an aversion to the divinized kings having harems. Rather, Genesis 6:1-4 is part of sacred Scripture because the writer was taking aim at Mesopotamian theology and the myth of Babylonian superiority.

The apkallu sought to undermine the wishes of Marduk and his council by ensuring the knowledge that helped to create Mesopotamian civilization would survive, allowing humanity to recover from the disaster of the flood. The post-flood apkallu warrior-sages were epic heroes to whom Babylon owed its magnificence. The writer of Genesis didn't see it that way. The transgression of the sons of God of Genesis 6:1-4 would eventually produce the greatest threat to capturing the promised land of Canaan, the Nephilim and their descendant giant clans. This point was clearly communicated by linking the Anakim and the giant clans on both sides of the Jordan to the Nephilim (Num 13:32-33; Deut 2-3). As the author of 1 Enoch would later put it, the cohhabitation offense was acting in the mode of creators--creating living beings in their own image. In 1 Enoch 69:4-5, the archangels sent to punish the offending sons of God met together:

"Then it happened that when they stood before the Lord of the Spirits, Michael said to Raphael thus, "They shall not prosper before the eye of the lord; for they have quarreled with the Lord of the Spirits because they make the image of the Lord. Therefore, all that which has been concealed shall come upon them forever and ever; for neither an angel nor a man should be assigned his role; (so) those (evil ones) alone have received their judgement forever and ever."

But the crimes of the son of God went beyond producing a lethal threat to YHWH's children, the Israelites. Since, according to the Old Testament, the giant clan lineages expired in the days of David, Second temple-period Jews were fixated on two other aspects of Genesis 6:1-4 polemic against the "apkallu theology" of Babylon. Our own study has already come across the first: the death of the Nephilim and their descendants was the explanation for the origin of demons. The second fixation was that Second Temple writers saw the dispensing of forbidden divine knowledge to humanity as causing the proliferation of human depravity. Unlike modern commentators who lack the apkally story as a frame of reference, ancient Jewish readers understood whyt he travesty of the sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 was immediately followed by Genesis 6:5:

"The Lord saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every intention of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually."

Why would the writer connect human wickedness to the transgression of the sons of God? Why would they think that the death of the giants brought forth the death of the giants brought forth demons? These beliefs and their connection to the Old Testament are only comprehensible in light of the apkallu polemic lurking behind Genesis 6:1-4. It is to both these points of the ancient Jewish theology of the powers of darkness that we now turn.

Let's take a look at the entire scripture there.

1 When human beings began to increase in number on the earth and daughters were born to them, 2 the sons of God saw that the daughters of humans were beautiful, and they married any of them they chose. 3 Then the Lord said, “My Spirit will not contend with humans forever, for they are mortal; their days will be a hundred and twenty years.”

4 The Nephilim were on the earth in those days—and also afterward—when the sons of God went to the daughters of humans and had children by them. They were the heroes of old, men of renown.


The entirety we know is that they thought human women were hot, boned them, and had children who are later referenced in comparison to giants in later books of the bible. One can hardly draw "they meet the basic definition of gods" from that. If that were so we'd need to conclude that my extremely large neighbor meets the basic definition of a god, as he is attracted to women, and any children he fathers are likely to be tall. So there is no reasonable basis to presume these are gods, indeed Genesis 6:2 does not even refer to them as Elohim in the first place.

Well, let's be clear in our terms then.

A deity or god is a supernatural being considered divine or sacred.[1] The Oxford Dictionary of English defines deity as a god or goddess (in a polytheistic religion), or anything revered as divine.[2] C. Scott Littleton defines a deity as "a being with powers greater than those of ordinary humans, but who interacts with humans, positively or negatively, in ways that carry humans to new levels of consciousness, beyond the grounded preoccupations of ordinary life".[3]
Deity - Wikipedia

The Watchers are "beings with powers greater than those of ordinary humans, but who interacts with humans, positively or negatively, in ways that carry humans to new levels of consciousness, beyond the grounded preoccupations of ordinary life."

That's my claim. Can I support it? Certainly I can.

"Asael taught men to make swords from iron and weapons and shields and breastplates and every instrument of war. He showed them metals of the earth and how they should work gold to fashion it suitably, and concerning silver, to fashion it for bracelets and ornaments for women. And he showed them concerning antimony and eye paint and all manner of precious stons and dyes. And the sons of men made them for themselves and for their daughters, and they transgressed and led astray the holy ones. And there was much godlessness upon the earth, and they made their ways desolate.

Shemihazah taught spells and the cutting of roots.
Hermani taught sorcery for the loosing of spells and magic and skill.
Baraqel taught the signs of the lightning flashes.
Kokabel taught the signs of the stars.
Ziqel taught the signs of the shooting stars.
Arteqoph taught the signs of the earth.
Shamsiel taught the signs of the sun.
Sahriel taught the signs of the moon.
And they all began to reveal mysteries to their wives and to their children.

And as men were perishing, the cry went up to heaven. (1 En 8:1-4)

Three other scriptures point to them being angels, however.

So what do you mean by angels? Angels is ultimately derived from the Greek angelos. Which itself is equated with the Jewish Malak/Malakim, which translates as "messenger". No surprises there, but what I'm asking you is, are you asserting that these are simply messengers (which is a job function) or are you asserting that these beings are also somehow divine? Again, I don't think anyone would argue that they aren't divine, but seeing past confusion, I think we should be careful in how we term our words.

Firstly, we have Job, where twice we see references to angels. In comparison with Adat that refers to human gatherings, an entirely different set of words are used to refer to a congregation of angels, first a Job 1:6 and then again at 2:1 and a third time (a variant) at Job 37:8.

The significant thing in these verses is the word formation:

בְּנֵ֥י (bə·nê) אֱלֹהִֽים׃ (’ĕ·lō·hîm)

Bene Elohim, sons of god, are consistently used to refer to congregations of angels. And Genesis 6:2 uses... Bene Elohim, sons of God, rather than Adat, congregation of people, or saying they themselves were Elohim (Gods, sometimes, also a range of other powerful people). This is significant in understanding why interpreting Psalm 82 as referring to a congregation is incorrect, we see a dramatically different set of word choices, words used explicitly and only for groups of angels and a different word set used for groups of humans, and Psalm 82 uses the word for humans. Meanwhile when other gods are mentioned in the bible such as Baal, Moloch, and Chemosh they never have the identifier of Bene, sons of [God].

This is from Angels:
Many scholars have pointed out there is a discernible hierarchy within the divine council. All council members, including YHWH, are hgeavenly spirit beings (ruhot, samayim, elohim). However, a careful comparison of the council terminology sketched here with texts from ancient Canaan, particularly Ugarit, and the terms "sons of God" (bene [ha] elohim/elim) and "angel" (mal'ak) allows one to discern three tiers within the council.

The term "prince" (sar) is also relevant for hierarchy. not all members of the heavenly host bear this title. As I discussed at length in The Unseen Realm, the "princes" of the supernatural realm are to be identified with the "sons of God" assigned to the nations of the world in divine judgement by the Most High (Deut 32:8-9 [Qumran, LXX). These are the "princes" over nations that oppose YHWH and his people (Dan 10:13, 20). These sons of the Most High are later judged for corruptiona nd rebellion in Psalm 82, thereby defecting from YHWH's service. More positively, the princely terminology is used to describe the "commander (sar) of the army of the Lord" (Josh 5:14). The term, "chief princes" obviously suggests tiered authority. Michael, the "prince" of Isarel (Dan 10:21, 12:1) is one of the "chief princes" (Dan 10:13). As Collins notes:

"The origin of this [prince] idea is to be sought in the ancient Near Eastern concept of the Divine Council. The existence of national deities is assumed in the Rabshakeh's taunt: "Who among all the gods of the countries have delivered their countires out of my hand that the Lord should deliver Jerusalem out of my hand?" (2 Kgs 18:35 = Isa 36:20)"

Detailed discussions of the evidence for the hierarchal strucutre within the divine council may be found elsewhere. "Sons of God" is familial language. "Angel" is the English translation of Hebrew mal'ak ("messenger"). This language is intentional. Sonship language in the context of royal ideology conveyed the notion of high-ranking administration. The children of the king were not mere messengers; they outranked messengers. The sons of the king were an elite level of authority, granted that status by the king himself. The king's governance would include hundreds, even thousands, of individuals, but authority was tiered. Family members (immediate and extended) had high ranking.

The hierarchy of the divine council is illustrated by the functional terminology for the members of God's heavenly hosts, to which we now turn.

Even setting that aside, what is your assertion as to what these "gods" that El Elyon defeated were? Demons? Demons is derived from Daemons, which was a flexible Greek term for 'spirit'. It doesn't necessarily translate as some sort of evil spirit.

Additionally, 2 Peter 2:4 and Jude 1:6 both make reference to them as Angels who forsook their position in heaven (Those books being written in Greek rather than Hebrew, of course, did not use exact Hebrew words). So taking the bible as a whole there's an extremely solid foundation that these were angels and only vague unsupported conjecture that they could be anything else.

So again, are you asserting that all of these spirits that were punished, were messengers?

My error then, I retract my statements there.

Then that begs the question, what do you think I'm trying to prove with my arguments?

These are not biblical teachings. You can generally be sure a biblical scholar isn't high quality if he can't actually stick with the bible and starts randomly inserting other nations' mythology in there. That strategy works great if you're writing a comic book or crossover fanfic, not so much looking at real history and theology.

He calls upon the greater social and historical context of which, the Jews lived within. I'm no expert, but unless he's straight out lying, I don't really see a flaw in his argument.

Which is thoroughly answered in the part you snipped. No serious bible scholar who looked at the actual words, as opposed to the translation of "Divine council" would think it involved gods because Adat doesn't ever refer to gods. Additionally, other scriptures, including Jesus himself, reference it and state that it's humans, also quoted in the part you snipped out. So it basically requires deliberate effort at mistranslation to see this as a gathering of gods.

Which brings us back to the problem I have with your argument. You don't deny the presence of "angels", but you deny the presence of "gods"? What is your objection?
 
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Bear Ribs

Well-known member
No, it's me saving time. That is not to say I don't appreciate the effort, but you proving that there are multiple uses of Elohim doesn't really address the thrust of our disagreement, which is to say, the job titles of certain spirits within El Elyon's host, who are under his command--what they did and how El Elyon responded to their transgressions.

Then that begs the question, what do you think I'm trying to prove with my arguments?
I have changed the order of some of your statements, though tried to maintain context, to keep down the level of Spaghetti posting we're producing, as you repeat questions in separate areas a few times. You have stated that the divine council, Adat, are gods in Psalm 82, and that human judges would not appear in the "Divine council." You stated that the Nephilim were demi-gods in the same post. You made the claim that Mesopotamian mythology is part of the bible and that the Nephilim produced these Mesopotamian myths as their children. You have stated that the attribution of the term Elohim to human judges, kings, angels, ghosts, and the like are inventions of later writers, particularly the Church of England in the 17th century, and not the original writers. These are claims I disagree with and have provided biblical proof against.

Not really. I'll post the conclusion found in Demons on the apkallu.
Your own quoted source states they're Mesopotamian, not biblical. I see no value in trying to mix scripture with pagan teachings that are not supported in the bible, certainly not if you try to make the bald-faced assertion that this is biblical truth as you did earlier in this specific case.

Well, let's be clear in our terms then.

Deity - Wikipedia

The Watchers are "beings with powers greater than those of ordinary humans, but who interacts with humans, positively or negatively, in ways that carry humans to new levels of consciousness, beyond the grounded preoccupations of ordinary life."

That's my claim. Can I support it? Certainly I can.
What powers do they have? How did they raise humans to new levels of consciousness, beyond the grounded preoccupations of ordinary life? If having sex with women counts we'd need to presume that all men are gods.

So again, are you asserting that all of these spirits that were punished, were messengers?

So what do you mean by angels? Angels is ultimately derived from the Greek angelos. Which itself is equated with the Jewish Malak/Malakim, which translates as "messenger". No surprises there, but what I'm asking you is, are you asserting that these are simply messengers (which is a job function) or are you asserting that these beings are also somehow divine? Again, I don't think anyone would argue that they aren't divine, but seeing past confusion, I think we should be careful in how we term our words.

This is from Angels:
The book of Enoch? Seriously? The Apocrypha that contradicts the rest of the bible thoroughly at multiple levels? This explains much of why you don't understand much of scripture if you're trying to somehow square it with the ludicrousness that is the Book of Enoch. To save time, some of its vast inconsistencies:

Claims to be written by Enoch, but 100% certainly was not, is written in Ge'ez. By itself, this falsehood is sufficient to cast serious doubts on it as bible canon. No pseudepigraph has ever been allowed into it. We can't even verify the original language, much less verbiage, and extant copies are mainly in Ethiopian Ge'ez.

The other bible books do not reference it. Jesus does not quote it. It repeatedly contradicts other bible teachings. Among the ludicrous inconsistencies with the rest of the bible:

Giants 4500 feet tall that eat humans even though that makes little sense and they shouldn't be able to see humans.
Chronology fails, Enoch is present for the birth of Noah even though he was taken long before Noah was born according to Genesis' chronology. Various other places have similar fails, such as mentioning Mount Hermon as existing before the flood and being named by angels, even though it's name does not have the meaning the book ascribes to it.
Azazel the source of original sin instead of Satan in 10.8.
10:20-22 has the Flood removing all sin from the world, which isn't quite how it looks to have worked out. Also, Enoch did not live to see the flood, more of it's continuous chronology fails.
Noah isn't able to build the ark so angels do it for him in 67:2, contradicting Genesis.
Noah's eyes blast out laser beams of pure sunlight when he's born in Enoch 106:2-6 and his father is driven away by it, odd for a failure who can't even build an ark.

As far as what the angels are, you should realize by now I look at the context and compare multiple bible verses while examining the words with care, and am not going to be swayed by a "technically the word means messenger" gotcha. Angels are used as messengers, defenders, to destroy God's targets, to deceive Israel's enemies, and for numerous other purposes. We can get a general idea of what an angel is by comparing various verses that describe them, their powers, and their actions rather than by pointing to a default meaning of a single word and ignoring all context.

Even setting that aside, what is your assertion as to what these "gods" that El Elyon defeated were? Demons? Demons is derived from Daemons, which was a flexible Greek term for 'spirit'. It doesn't necessarily translate as some sort of evil spirit.
Psalm 135:15-18
15The idols of the nations are silver and gold,
made by human hands.
16They have mouths, but cannot speak,
eyes, but cannot see.
17They have ears, but cannot hear,
nor is there breath in their mouths.
18Those who make them will be like them,
and so will all who trust in them.


He calls upon the greater social and historical context of which, the Jews lived within. I'm no expert, but unless he's straight out lying, I don't really see a flaw in his argument.

Which brings us back to the problem I have with your argument. You don't deny the presence of "angels", but you deny the presence of "gods"? What is your objection?
I've actually read the bible.

Isaiah 45:5
I am the LORD, and there is no other; apart from me there is no God. I will strengthen you, though you have not acknowledged me,

Isaiah 45:5
It [A tree he felled in context] is used as fuel for burning; some of it he takes and warms himself, he kindles a fire and bakes bread. But he also fashions a god and worships it; he makes an idol and bows down to it.
 

The Original Sixth

Well-known member
Founder
I have changed the order of some of your statements, though tried to maintain context, to keep down the level of Spaghetti posting we're producing, as you repeat questions in separate areas a few times. You have stated that the divine council, Adat, are gods in Psalm 82, and that human judges would not appear in the "Divine council."

I have no problem with that, if you don't mind me making a bit of restructuring of my own, so as to make this more productive? Let us first agree on at least a select understanding. My point about the angels being a translation of Malak was not to trap you or trick you--it was to simply get an answer from you. And your answer was more or less what I expected it would be, as I suspect that this is the core issue if misunderstanding.

The point isn't that Angelos was a translation of malak, or messenger--and therefore they aren't celestial beings. My point was that the areas where the Bible specifies Malak, they are referring to celestial beings--whose job it is to carry messages. Just as Cherubs are celestial beings, but whose job it is to guard the throne of El Elyon. Both are celestial beings, but they have different jobs. What I am asserting, is not that these were not celestial beings, these malakim, but that malakim was conflated into a generic term for one of his divine servants.

Of these celestial beings, there are those who are treated as princes in the heavenly order. Those who are essentially ranked as you might find in a royal family. Whether this is literal or figurative, is unimportant. All that matters is that there was a hierarchy. And within that hierarchy, there are those who act as ministers, as princes, as accusers, as mediators, and as messengers. Some who act as soldiers and others who act as guardians. All part of a heavenly governing body.

So then, I take you back to where it all began. What is a god? What defines a god? Is it that it is worshipped? No, because not all deities that were ever imagined were deemed as something to worship. Is it power? No, because deities can range from ancestor worship to the Zeus. The key point on what a deity is, is that it is a spirit that can have a negative or positive impact upon the world.

So, a deity is not an explanation of one's nature, it is what one does. That is important, because without that key understanding, we'll be at odds. Now, I need to stress that simply because a spirit takes on the role of a deity, that does not equate it to El Elyon. For while a spirit is immortal, it does so at the sufferance at El Elyon. And it exists because it was created in the image of El Elyon, just as we were. (though in a different way) And El Elyon is eternal, because El Elyon has no creator. El Elyon is the originator of all things.

You stated that the Nephilim were demi-gods in the same post. You made the claim that Mesopotamian mythology is part of the bible and that the Nephilim produced these Mesopotamian myths as their children. You have stated that the attribution of the term Elohim to human judges, kings, angels, ghosts, and the like are inventions of later writers, particularly the Church of England in the 17th century, and not the original writers. These are claims I disagree with and have provided biblical proof against.

And that is what they are. For the Watchers did more than just bang a few women; they taught humans magic and forbidden knowledge. The Nephilim, thus being part celestial, part mortal--is a demigod. That is not a stretch of the word by any means. They were giants, yes--but then so were a set of gods in Norse Mythology, so that does not indicate a lack of divinity.

Your own quoted source states they're Mesopotamian, not biblical. I see no value in trying to mix scripture with pagan teachings that are not supported in the bible, certainly not if you try to make the bald-faced assertion that this is biblical truth as you did earlier in this specific case.

I am aware of that, am I not? Do you imagine that the Jews existed in a vacuum? The point of denouncing the Nephilim so strongly, is believed to have been commentary on the apkallu scholars, who claimed such ancestry to bolster their own reputations.

I've actually read the bible.

Yes, as you've told me several times. And for some reason, you seem to think you're the only one. I might remind you that, I am not the one who threw forward some half-ass, pagan BS about El Elyon being defeated by a mere lesser power? By butchering the biblical texts? By ignoring scripture that came before it on El Elyon's supreme power--and then imagining the immense stupidity of Jewish leaders not being able to spot the contradiction? Neither of us did that.

Shock as it might be to you, I also read the bible. And it was apparent to me, even when I read it at a young age, that El Elyon had a divine council and he had other beings who did his bidding and at times, engaged in debate with each other at El Elyon's behest. The revelation that these rival gods were originally members of El Elyon's own council who had gone rogue, elevates the scripture and the supreme power of El Elyon, it does not take away from it.

The point was never that there was no spirit named Baal Hedad or Chemosh--the point was that they were lesser to the One True God, El Elyon. YHWH.



I am the LORD, and there is no other; apart from me there is no God. I will strengthen you, though you have not acknowledged me,

Isaiah 45:5
It [A tree he felled in context] is used as fuel for burning; some of it he takes and warms himself, he kindles a fire and bakes bread. But he also fashions a god and worships it; he makes an idol and bows down to it.

And I think again, this is where the misunderstanding is. There are three divine rebellions against El Elyon.

There was the serpent, who brought death into the world and deceived Adam and Eve.

There were the Watchers, who took human wives, had bastard children, and taught men sorcery.

And there were the Elohim, the spirits that El Elyon had put in charge of the other nations--but instead of guiding them back toward El Elyon, instead of looking over them, they abused their positions and seduced men into worshiping them. (they, who were false)
 

King Arts

Well-known member
Is someone here trying to deny that the Biblical God is the Supreme Being? Really?
Yes and no it’s complicated. You can make the argument that even if the Bible God did what was in the Bible that doesn’t necessarily mean he is omnipotent or unable to be overthrown.
 

Zachowon

The Army Life for me! The POG life for me!
Founder
Am I seeing people trying to translate Hebrew?
Don't we have an Isreali here?
 

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