Division of the Americas in a Union of Castile, Aragon and Portugal Scenario

[TheRomanSlayer]

The Treaty of Torsedillas was only possible because of possible conflicting interests between Spain and Portugal, where Portugal can claim the lands east of the line proposed in said treaty, while Spain would claim the lands west of that same line. However, the Treaty of Torsedillas was not effectively enforced, as the Portuguese colony of Brazil expanded past the line it was supposed to abide by, and in turn, the lands that became known as the Philippines (which was going to become a part of the Portuguese sphere of influence) was colonized by Spain instead.

However, if there was a scenario where the Crowns of Castile, Aragon, and Portugal have united, then there would be no point in formulating the Treaty of Torsedillas. What would happen to the division of the Americas in this scenario? Since Portugal would be tied to Castile and Aragon, they wouldn't exactly be going on colonial expeditions on their own.

 

[S'task]

I think the only major change would be in South America, the lack of Brazil as a colony is a pretty big deal, but even with a united crown, they aren't going to be able to prevent French, English, and Dutch expansion into the Caribbean and North America.

The more interesting impact is actually not in the Americas, but in Japan. You see, Catholic Missionary efforts in the original timeline were mainly handled out of Portugal, to the point where for a time the Japanese catholics were under the Diocies of Lisbon. This was a major point of contention within the Catholoc Church as the Spanish wanted to have control over the lucrative trade and influence over the Japanese Daimyo, to the point where they pushed the Church courts to make that saod determination of who Japan fell under (their hope was to get it under the Diocies of Madrid and thus under Spanish control). With this situation, you likely see it under the Spa ish control... which actually really complicates things, as the Diocies of Lisbon was actually interested in spreading Christianity with trade being a secondary concern, which meant they were blindsided by the efforts of the Dutch and anti-Christian daimyo to demonize the Catholics, which eventually led to them getting banned and one of the worst persecutions of Christians in history. The more politically canny Spanish may have been able to prevent that... or they might have overplayed their hand and made the backlash even worse somehow. Regardless, it would be a major shift in the history of Japan.

 

[TheRomanSlayer]

I think the only major change would be in South America, the lack of Brazil as a colony is a pretty big deal, but even with a united crown, they aren't going to be able to prevent French, English, and Dutch expansion into the Caribbean and North America.

The more interesting impact is actually not in the Americas, but in Japan. You see, Catholic Missionary efforts in the original timeline were mainly handled out of Portugal, to the point where for a time the Japanese catholics were under the Diocies of Lisbon. This was a major point of contention within the Catholoc Church as the Spanish wanted to have control over the lucrative trade and influence over the Japanese Daimyo, to the point where they pushed the Church courts to make that saod determination of who Japan fell under (their hope was to get it under the Diocies of Madrid and thus under Spanish control). With this situation, you likely see it under the Spa ish control... which actually really complicates things, as the Diocies of Lisbon was actually interested in spreading Christianity with trade being a secondary concern, which meant they were blindsided by the efforts of the Dutch and anti-Christian daimyo to demonize the Catholics, which eventually led to them getting banned and one of the worst persecutions of Christians in history. The more politically canny Spanish may have been able to prevent that... or they might have overplayed their hand and made the backlash even worse somehow. Regardless, it would be a major shift in the history of Japan.

So who would be the prime colonizer of Brazil in this case without Portugal getting involved?

 

[Buba]

At this point of time these were not real unions but personal unions. It is handy mental shorthand to say that Portugal and Spain blah blah, but it actually was Portugal and Castille.
IMO even if three of the four Spanish kingdoms end up with the same monarch around 1500 then this does not change much, if at all, from OTL.
There might be no Treaty of Tordesillas, true, but there still would be "division of labour", with some colonies administered through Lisbon and some through Madrid-Sevilla.
Brazil being under Lisbon makes sense due to how the passage to India was routed. Which in turn was dictated by winds and currents.