raharris1973
Well-known member
If one wanted to achieve Polish-Lithuanian state by the dawn of the 18th century that was absolutist in a way comparable any of the forms in absolutism in other European countries of the time – for example, the French Bourbon model, or Spanish Habsburg, the Romanov, or Hohenzollern Brandenburger models, how far back in Polish and Lithuanian history would you need to start radically altering the political culture?
Secondary obvious what-if - If you wanted to keep a Polish parliamentarism, but have it be functional in supporting a national interest as England's was, and representative of cities, burghers, and the middle-class, in a society of greater literacy, and not just representative of nobles and landed magnates, how far back in Polish and Lithuanian history would you need to start radically altering the political culture?
Secondary obvious what-if - If you wanted to keep a Polish parliamentarism, but have it be functional in supporting a national interest as England's was, and representative of cities, burghers, and the middle-class, in a society of greater literacy, and not just representative of nobles and landed magnates, how far back in Polish and Lithuanian history would you need to start radically altering the political culture?