Why didn't Belgian (and Luxembourg) territory get violated during the Franco-Prussian war?

Why didn't Belgian Belgian territory get violated in the Franco-Prussian War?

  • The British said or did something that deterred the French and Prussians

    Votes: 1 33.3%
  • Neither Prussia nor France had and operational reason or imperative to use Belgium

    Votes: 2 66.7%

  • Total voters
    3

raharris1973

Well-known member
Why didn't Belgian (and Luxembourg) territory get violated during the Franco-Prussian war?

Did the British do or say anything that was critical or decisive in warning away the French or the Prussians?

Or did the Prussians and French simply never see operations on Belgian territory as operationally convenient, useful, or imperative during this war in any way?
 
This question was inspired by another discussion where someone, in talking about 1914, ended up saying:

The British could also have repeated the 1870 policy, which would have secured Belgium from invasion from either side without the need to commit a single British soldier.

This puzzled me and I asked that person:

How much of this was really active British policy though? I'm not aware of them making special deterrent warnings to the Prussians or French saying "I'll let you beat up on each other but don't touch Belgium". Rather, the British just didn't get involved. Meanwhile, the Prussians directly crossed the French border because it was the French enemy they wanted to rally to fight, and in the circumstances of of 1870, no widening of the war to include Belgium was considered necessary to meet Berlin's goals.

I didn't get an answer, but wondered if anybody had more insight.
 
Why didn't Belgian (and Luxembourg) territory get violated during the Franco-Prussian war?

Did the British do or say anything that was critical or decisive in warning away the French or the Prussians?

Or did the Prussians and French simply never see operations on Belgian territory as operationally convenient, useful, or imperative during this war in any way?
in 1870 Prussia was still England attack dog,so they do not dared attack Belgium which was considered England property.
And even if they were not,they do not need it to win.
 
Basically neither side had as large of armies and the frontiers of both nations where as heavily fortified against each other

Agree. There was no need for Prussia to attack via Belgium, which would have significant political and possibly military costs. Plus its desire was a quick victory and it achieved the core of this by using its faster moblisation to assemble and deploy to the A-L area and defeat the bulk of the Imperial French forces before they could be properly assembled. Going via Belgium would do nothing to aid this and would allow the French to fully assemble their armies and be able to threaten either Germany or the flank and supply lines of the advancing German forces.
 
Basically neither side had as large of armies and the frontiers of both nations where as heavily fortified against each other

Yep, this. Basically, there was no need for it and Prussia had no need to quickly defeat France in 1870-1871 like it had in 1914 and thus could take its time doing this in 1870-1871.
 

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