The Fourth Crusade reaches its original destination of Egypt instead of sacking Constantinople

Part of the reason Islam was so widely successful in Bangladesh is because it was mostly tribal pagan when the Muslims arrived on scene; same reason the Northeast went Christian under the British, their missionaries arrived before Hinduism had the means to advance into the area. It's a notch in favor of Christianity such the Mongols go Christian as they invade. Alternatively, of course, it also means that the better positioned Islamic rulers could help to further cement their rule by converting a wider swath of the population.

BTW, HL, does it strike you as a mistake on the Mughals' part that they did not try to more aggressively Islamize northern India? It seems like it would have been ideal for Pakistan post-1947 to have a land connection between its two parts, but that was not possible because the Muslim population in north-central India simply wasn't large enough for this region to be given to Pakistan:

8a2582680068595fecd34a6e74cfe518da8bc72a.png
 
BTW, HL, does it strike you as a mistake on the Mughals' part that they did not try to more aggressively Islamize northern India? It seems like it would have been ideal for Pakistan post-1947 to have a land connection between its two parts, but that was not possible because the Muslim population in north-central India simply wasn't large enough for this region to be given to Pakistan:

8a2582680068595fecd34a6e74cfe518da8bc72a.png

I mean, I don't think the Mughals foresaw their own collapse or the future of India at large, so it's rather hindsight.
 
IIRC, something like 25-30% of India did become Muslim under the Mughals, and it was the prime faith of urbanized people. Entirely possible here Islam could become the majority faith in all of India.

You can take a look at Indian religious data for the late 19th and early 20th centuries here:


If 25-30% of India truly was Muslim in the Mughal era, then this percentage slightly declined to around 20% by the late 19th century before beginning to increase again. It was 25% or so by the time of India's independence and partition in 1947. Partitioned India, of course, had a Muslim percentage of slightly below 10% due to Pakistan's and Bangladesh's secession from India.
 
You can take a look at Indian religious data for the late 19th and early 20th centuries here:


If 25-30% of India truly was Muslim in the Mughal era, then this percentage slightly declined to around 20% by the late 19th century before beginning to increase again. It was 25% or so by the time of India's independence and partition in 1947. Partitioned India, of course, had a Muslim percentage of slightly below 10% due to Pakistan's and Bangladesh's secession from India.

I'd have to find the article I'm getting that figure from again; it was 25% according to it, but I've seen other sources claim up to 30%. During the late stages of the Mughals, Hindusim underwent an resurgence and was even (re)converting Muslims despite Mughal attempts to stop it. Interestingly, it was the areas without the caste system that converted the most, which lends credence to my suggestion of waves of Turkic warbands to convert the place, as they will crush the existing apparatus and thus enable greater "missionary" work.
 
I'd have to find the article I'm getting that figure from again; it was 25% according to it, but I've seen other sources claim up to 30%. During the late stages of the Mughals, Hindusim underwent an resurgence and was even (re)converting Muslims despite Mughal attempts to stop it. Interestingly, it was the areas without the caste system that converted the most, which lends credence to my suggestion of waves of Turkic warbands to convert the place, as they will crush the existing apparatus and thus enable greater "missionary" work.

Yes, I've read that the reason that Islam became entrenched in places such as western Punjab, eastern Bengal, and (earlier) western Sindh is because Hinduism was less entrenched there before Islam came to these regions. I know that Buddhism, for instance, was a serious competitor to Hinduism in some of these places, such as Sindh, in the pre-Islamic era. This is why, for instance, the Buddhists in Sindh largely became Muslim while the Hindus in Sindh largely remained Hindu. Of course, the Sindh example is pre-Mughal, but the Punjab and Bengal examples are not, to my knowledge. Though the process might have began in Punjab and Bengal under the Delhi Sultanate. I'm not sure exactly.
 
@Ricardolindo, for instance, previously taught me that the Punjab was largely settled by formerly nomadic Jats, who converted to the dominant religion in each part of the Punjab once they became a settled population:


According to historians Catherine Asher and Cynthia Talbot,[27]

The Jats also provide an important insight into how religious identities evolved during the precolonial era. Before they settled in the Punjab and other northern regions, the pastoralist Jats had little exposure to any of the mainstream religions. Only after they became more integrated into the agrarian world did the Jats adopt the dominant religion of the people in whose midst they dwelt.[27]

Over time the Jats became primarily Muslim in the western Punjab, Sikh in the eastern Punjab, and Hindu in the areas between Delhi Territory and Agra, with the divisions by faith reflecting the geographical strengths of these religions.[27]
 

Users who are viewing this thread

Back
Top