raharris1973
Well-known member
What alternatives might the 'Catholic monarchs' of the Castillian-Aragonese union of crowns have had to the 'management' (or control, domination, subordination) of their non-Christian religious minorities, besides the total expulsion of the non-converted from Spanish territory?
To tighten the parameters of the question, let's still presuppose there is a Spain as we know it, made up of a Aragon-Castille-Navarre union of crowns, and it completes the destruction of Muslim states of the peninsula by conquering Granada by about 1492.
Could the King, Queen and Royalty of Spain satisfy their nobility and Christian public opinion not doing expulsions of Jews (and perhaps Muslims) at all, and being satisfied with imposing high taxes, civil disabilities, and so on?
If not and some sort of public Christian groundswell existed for some 'cleansing' of infidels (from their POV, not time), could it have been more limited, such as geographic restrictions on where Jews (and Muslims) could live, somewhat like the Russian Empire's later 'Pale of Settlement'?
If Spain had a 'Pale of Settlement' system, perhaps the most natural dividing line would have been expulsion of Jews and Muslims from all Castilian lands (especially since Castille's Queen Isabella was the more fervently pious of the royal couple), in Iberia, and the newly discovered America (the so-called Indies), but with them permitted to continue residing in Navarre and Aragonese lands. I think religious minorities were thicker on the ground in Aragon than in Castille anyway (except for newly conquered Granada).
Or perhaps the Spanish monarchs might have wanted to exclude the Jews from most of their realm, but not have them move abroad to strengthen Spain's enemies, it's Muslim enemies in the Mediterranean in particular. Could they have imposed exile to some of Spain's island territories, like one or more of the Balearic Islands, or the Canaries, or Sicily, or Sardinia? Or possibly Asturias/Galicia would be considered safest for security reasons, as it's most distant from Muslim enemies?
Your thoughts?
To tighten the parameters of the question, let's still presuppose there is a Spain as we know it, made up of a Aragon-Castille-Navarre union of crowns, and it completes the destruction of Muslim states of the peninsula by conquering Granada by about 1492.
Could the King, Queen and Royalty of Spain satisfy their nobility and Christian public opinion not doing expulsions of Jews (and perhaps Muslims) at all, and being satisfied with imposing high taxes, civil disabilities, and so on?
If not and some sort of public Christian groundswell existed for some 'cleansing' of infidels (from their POV, not time), could it have been more limited, such as geographic restrictions on where Jews (and Muslims) could live, somewhat like the Russian Empire's later 'Pale of Settlement'?
If Spain had a 'Pale of Settlement' system, perhaps the most natural dividing line would have been expulsion of Jews and Muslims from all Castilian lands (especially since Castille's Queen Isabella was the more fervently pious of the royal couple), in Iberia, and the newly discovered America (the so-called Indies), but with them permitted to continue residing in Navarre and Aragonese lands. I think religious minorities were thicker on the ground in Aragon than in Castille anyway (except for newly conquered Granada).
Or perhaps the Spanish monarchs might have wanted to exclude the Jews from most of their realm, but not have them move abroad to strengthen Spain's enemies, it's Muslim enemies in the Mediterranean in particular. Could they have imposed exile to some of Spain's island territories, like one or more of the Balearic Islands, or the Canaries, or Sicily, or Sardinia? Or possibly Asturias/Galicia would be considered safest for security reasons, as it's most distant from Muslim enemies?
Your thoughts?