AHC: Additional cases of national self-determination being used as a prelude for subsequent imperialism?

WolfBear

Well-known member
In real life, I can think of these cases of national self-determination being used as a prelude for subsequent imperialism:

-Texas's successful rebellion against Mexico in 1836 and Texas being annexed by the US nine years later, in 1845, which in turn was followed by the Mexican-American War, which resulted in the US conquest of the Southwest (Alta California and New Mexico) from Mexico.
-Nazi Germany's annexation of the Sudetenland in late 1938 on national self-determination grounds, which in turn was followed by Nazi Germany's subsequent occupation of Czechia in March 1939.
-Russia's annexation of Crimea and support of the Donbass separatists starting from 2014, which in turn was followed by the Russian invasion of Ukraine eight years later, in 2022.

Anyway, which additional realistic examples of this can you think of? I mean hypothetical ones as well as historical ones.
 
One could, of course, also look at Hungary's expansion into southern Slovakia on national self-determination grounds in late 1938 only for Hungary to subsequently expand into Subcarpthian Ruthenia in early 1939.
 
Obvious one for a Brit. The Irish Republic's insistence - written into their constitution for decades until the 1990's - that they owned N Ireland regardless of the views of the population there. ;) True it never progressed beyond a claim rather than going to war but could be argued as an imperialist claim.
 
Obvious one for a Brit. The Irish Republic's insistence - written into their constitution for decades until the 1990's - that they owned N Ireland regardless of the views of the population there. ;) True it never progressed beyond a claim rather than going to war but could be argued as an imperialist claim.

Excellent example, Steve! Can you think of any other ones? Interwar Poland, perhaps? It took over not only Polish-majority territories, but also Ukrainian-majority, Belarusian-majority, and Lithuanian-majority territories, after all.
 
Does the Israeli constitution say anything about the state's territorial limits. If it does, is that the unamended, pre-1967 text? I don't know if the Israeli constitution ever has been amended. The Herut (precursor to Irgun) Party constitution had open territorial revisionist aims incorporating all of Jordan (West and East Bank) or at least West Bank in its 1949-1967 incarnation. The initial wedge for settlements in the occupied West Bank was restitution of lost Jewish neighborhoods from East Jerusalem that were evacuated/expelled during after the Independence War of 48-49, and restoration of evacuated/expelled kibbutzes like Gush Etzion and the larger Etzion bloc and Sodom at the top of the Dead Sea. Then it expanded into new outposts where there hadn't been a 19th or 20th century Jewish presence.
 
Does the Israeli constitution say anything about the state's territorial limits. If it does, is that the unamended, pre-1967 text? I don't know if the Israeli constitution ever has been amended. The Herut (precursor to Irgun) Party constitution had open territorial revisionist aims incorporating all of Jordan (West and East Bank) or at least West Bank in its 1949-1967 incarnation. The initial wedge for settlements in the occupied West Bank was restitution of lost Jewish neighborhoods from East Jerusalem that were evacuated/expelled during after the Independence War of 48-49, and restoration of evacuated/expelled kibbutzes like Gush Etzion and the larger Etzion bloc and Sodom at the top of the Dead Sea. Then it expanded into new outposts where there hadn't been a 19th or 20th century Jewish presence.

There's a settlement near Sodom?
 
Western Sahara was always part of Morocco until the age of 19th-century imperialism when Spain grabbed it instead of France.
 
Western Sahara was always part of Morocco until the age of 19th-century imperialism when Spain grabbed it instead of France.

Thanks!

As a side note, I wonder if Morocco could have permanently kept its independence had WWI broken out a little earlier--or had its colonization been delayed by just a bit and then WWI would have broken out before it could be done. Thoughts on this?
 

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