raharris1973
Well-known member
Historically, the Ottoman Dynasty came close to extinction in 1640 when Murad IV died and he reportedly was about to execute his brother Ibrahim (who became Sultan after his death) before his death, so what happens next if Ibrahim had been executed before Murad IV's death? AFAIK, the Girays would take over the Ottoman Empire if the Ottomans had gone extinct, but how stable would their rule be? What would an "Ottoman Empire" ruled by the Girays look like? Do the enemies of the Ottoman Empire take advantage of this?
Let's consider a worst-case scenario where governors especially in the majority Muslim provinces of Asia and Africa are not falling into line with the new dynastic set-up and forming break-away states all over the place.
Severe internal termoil and fragmentation causes probable interruption/preemption of Ottoman-Venetian War that started in 1645 and the invasion and Venice's loss of Crete.
There was no Ottoman participation in 30 Years War, so possibly no change to outcomes of war and Treaty of Westphalia 1648. The marginal effect of the Ottoman empire in internal turmoil or callpsing in on itself would just be to boost Habsburg confidence a bit, but it doesn’t really solve any of their near term problems or pay their bills.
Safavid Persia had just ceded back Iraq to the Ottomans in 1638 after occupying it for 15 years – it’s reasonable to assume they may want to reacquire it if the Ottomans fall into disorder just two years later.
To ensure the timeline is truly divergent, it’s best to make sure that when the Ottoman heirs all kill each other in 1640, power does not smoothly get picked up (at least empire-wide) by either the Giray Khans of Crimea or the Koprulu Viziers or both. That allows maximum fragmentation/weakening of the central empire.
I think European, African, and Asian developments should be considered equally.
Let's consider a worst-case scenario where governors especially in the majority Muslim provinces of Asia and Africa are not falling into line with the new dynastic set-up and forming break-away states all over the place.
Severe internal termoil and fragmentation causes probable interruption/preemption of Ottoman-Venetian War that started in 1645 and the invasion and Venice's loss of Crete.
There was no Ottoman participation in 30 Years War, so possibly no change to outcomes of war and Treaty of Westphalia 1648. The marginal effect of the Ottoman empire in internal turmoil or callpsing in on itself would just be to boost Habsburg confidence a bit, but it doesn’t really solve any of their near term problems or pay their bills.
Safavid Persia had just ceded back Iraq to the Ottomans in 1638 after occupying it for 15 years – it’s reasonable to assume they may want to reacquire it if the Ottomans fall into disorder just two years later.
To ensure the timeline is truly divergent, it’s best to make sure that when the Ottoman heirs all kill each other in 1640, power does not smoothly get picked up (at least empire-wide) by either the Giray Khans of Crimea or the Koprulu Viziers or both. That allows maximum fragmentation/weakening of the central empire.
I think European, African, and Asian developments should be considered equally.