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No, we're talking about the history of the religion, in terms of what the texts meant when they were written rather than what they're read to mean by the current practice. Do I need to start comparing the Jewish and Christian interpretations of the Torah/Old Testament to get this point across to...

...No, it's just the result of skepticism. We have contemporaneous religious writings and related languages to analyze, the monotheistic interpretation is a bizarre use of the grammar in question. The phrases include the use of "We" referring to "Elohim", which is the exact same word used for...

Actually they aren't, the older parts of the Torah get quite unambiguously monolaric at best (E.G. Psalms 97:9 is a "my god is best" statement, not "my god is the only god". A lot of those statements in that book...), and there's a few passages in the religious law that forbid specific practices...