raharris1973
Well-known member
WI France made a power-political move in Europe, not America, during the American rebellion?
What I have in mind is a French move to conquer and annex the Austrian Netherlands, the type of French expansion which Britain always objected to, while Britain is busy employing its limited military resources quelling the colonial rebellion of the mid-1770s.
To set up a pre-condition for this, I would think that after the 7 Years War, France effectively gives up its domestically unpopular Austrian alliance as moribund, rather than doubling down on it. Likely this is because it was never popular domestically, and it failed to secure a win for either partner in Europe or the colonial sphere. A side effect of this is some other Catholic bride, probably from a smaller German or Italian royal house, is chosen for Louis XVI, instead of the Austrienne Marie-Antoinette.
So, France spends the late 1760s and early 1770s building up its Navy and professionalizing its Army, anticipating the next round of war in Europe, whatever that may be. In 1766, France inherits Lorraine. In 1768, France scores a coup by successfully absorbing Corsica. In the early 1770s, France resists the temptation to unite with Spain to clash against Britain over the Malvinas Islands.
France watches the deterioration of relations between Britain and its American colonists between 1772 and 1776 with great interest, and allows covert sales of gunpowder to colonial rebels.
Some advocate for general colonial war with Britain once the American rebels declare independence or appear to be a going concern, or at least argue that France should follow that course if the rebels demonstrate enough staying power.
However, another faction in the French court arises arguing that if Englishmen from both sides of the Atlantic are killing each other, they should not be interrupted, and the problem of any French intervention on a side would be that one set of Englishmen would win, whereas the ideal outcome would be Englishmen on *both* sides of the Atlantic losing while France wins something for itself elsewhere.
The French government in 1777 begins preparing a build-up for the invasion of the Austrian Netherlands, and the American rebel victory at Saratoga in October 1777 convinces the French that the rebels will keep Britain busy for awhile, leading France to approve the launch of its own invasion of Austrian Netherlands in early 1778, flanked by its own naval forces.
In 1778, the French will encounter direct Austrian resistance in the Austrian Netherlands, but the Prussians are not on good terms with the Austrians, and the Dutch are likely feeling too weak to contend with France. France should be well-positioned to overmatch the Austrian garrisons, which the Habsburgs will find difficult to support or reinforce through the territories of other Princes.
The country with the greatest traditional interest, weight, and capability to oppose France in this area, beside Austria itself, is Britain, which is dealing with the American rebellion.
Faced in early 1778 with a protracted American rebellion on the one hand, but with a French invasion of the Austrian Netherlands on the other that threatens to put Antwerp, and potentially later the Scheldt in French hands, what will the British government prioritize and how will it split its limited number of British Isles and hired German regiments?
Will it stay focused on suppressing the American rebellion, even at the risk of France gaining and consolidating its hold over the southern Netherlands? Or will it come to an early settlement with the Americans (or simply vastly reduce operations in America without a settlement) and declare war on France in order to intervene to protect the independence of southern Netherlands from France?
What I have in mind is a French move to conquer and annex the Austrian Netherlands, the type of French expansion which Britain always objected to, while Britain is busy employing its limited military resources quelling the colonial rebellion of the mid-1770s.
To set up a pre-condition for this, I would think that after the 7 Years War, France effectively gives up its domestically unpopular Austrian alliance as moribund, rather than doubling down on it. Likely this is because it was never popular domestically, and it failed to secure a win for either partner in Europe or the colonial sphere. A side effect of this is some other Catholic bride, probably from a smaller German or Italian royal house, is chosen for Louis XVI, instead of the Austrienne Marie-Antoinette.
So, France spends the late 1760s and early 1770s building up its Navy and professionalizing its Army, anticipating the next round of war in Europe, whatever that may be. In 1766, France inherits Lorraine. In 1768, France scores a coup by successfully absorbing Corsica. In the early 1770s, France resists the temptation to unite with Spain to clash against Britain over the Malvinas Islands.
France watches the deterioration of relations between Britain and its American colonists between 1772 and 1776 with great interest, and allows covert sales of gunpowder to colonial rebels.
Some advocate for general colonial war with Britain once the American rebels declare independence or appear to be a going concern, or at least argue that France should follow that course if the rebels demonstrate enough staying power.
However, another faction in the French court arises arguing that if Englishmen from both sides of the Atlantic are killing each other, they should not be interrupted, and the problem of any French intervention on a side would be that one set of Englishmen would win, whereas the ideal outcome would be Englishmen on *both* sides of the Atlantic losing while France wins something for itself elsewhere.
The French government in 1777 begins preparing a build-up for the invasion of the Austrian Netherlands, and the American rebel victory at Saratoga in October 1777 convinces the French that the rebels will keep Britain busy for awhile, leading France to approve the launch of its own invasion of Austrian Netherlands in early 1778, flanked by its own naval forces.
In 1778, the French will encounter direct Austrian resistance in the Austrian Netherlands, but the Prussians are not on good terms with the Austrians, and the Dutch are likely feeling too weak to contend with France. France should be well-positioned to overmatch the Austrian garrisons, which the Habsburgs will find difficult to support or reinforce through the territories of other Princes.
The country with the greatest traditional interest, weight, and capability to oppose France in this area, beside Austria itself, is Britain, which is dealing with the American rebellion.
Faced in early 1778 with a protracted American rebellion on the one hand, but with a French invasion of the Austrian Netherlands on the other that threatens to put Antwerp, and potentially later the Scheldt in French hands, what will the British government prioritize and how will it split its limited number of British Isles and hired German regiments?
Will it stay focused on suppressing the American rebellion, even at the risk of France gaining and consolidating its hold over the southern Netherlands? Or will it come to an early settlement with the Americans (or simply vastly reduce operations in America without a settlement) and declare war on France in order to intervene to protect the independence of southern Netherlands from France?